A client is prescribed lisinopril 20 mg PO daily for the treatment of hypertension. Which finding would alert the nurse that a side effect of the medication has occurred?

Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg.

Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L.

Heart rate of 80 beats per minute.

Respiration rate of 16 breaths per minute.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A Reason
A blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg is considered within the normal range and is an ideal target for most individuals being treated for hypertension. This finding would not typically alert the nurse to a side effect of lisinopril.

Choice B Reason
Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L is higher than the normal range, which is typically between 3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. This is a known side effect of lisinopril, especially in clients with renal impairment, as it inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and reduces potassium excretion.

Choice C Reason
A heart rate of 80 beats per minute is within the normal range for adults, which is typically 60-100 beats per minute at rest. This finding would not alert the nurse to a side effect of lisinopril.

Choice D Reason
A respiration rate of 16 breaths per minute is within the normal range for adults, which is typically 12-20 breaths per minute at rest. This finding would not alert the nurse to a side effect of lisinopril.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Obesity is a significant risk factor for gout. It can lead to increased production and decreased excretion of uric acid, which in turn can cause gout attacks. The normal body mass index (BMI) range is 18.5 to 24.9, and a BMI of 30 or above is considered obese.

Choice B reason:
Regular consumption of beer can increase the risk of gout. Beer is high in purines, which the body breaks down into uric acid, and alcohol can reduce the excretion of uric acid by the kidneys. Moderation in alcohol consumption is advised, with the recommendation being up to one drink per day for women and up to two drinks per day for men.

Choice C reason:
Thiazide diuretics are associated with an increased risk of gout. They can decrease the kidney's ability to remove uric acid from the body, leading to its accumulation. When prescribing thiazide diuretics, healthcare providers often monitor uric acid levels and consider alternative medications if the patient has a history of gout.

Choice D reason:
Depression is not directly identified as a risk factor for developing gout. However, some lifestyle factors associated with depression, such as poor diet and inactivity, could indirectly increase the risk.

Choice E reason:
Hypertension is a known risk factor for gout. High blood pressure can impair kidney function, which is responsible for excreting uric acid, thus leading to hyperuricemia and gout. The normal range for blood pressure is considered to be below 120/80 mmHg.

A. Administer oxygen using a non-rebreather mask. B. Increase the rate of maintenance IV infusion. C. Elevate the client's legs. D. Place the client in the lateral position.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Administering oxygen using a non-rebreather mask is a subsequent step if initial measures do not improve fetal heart rate decelerations. It can help increase the amount of oxygen available to the fetus. Oxygen administration is a supportive measure that can be used if there are signs of fetal distress. In the scenario described, where the fetal heart rate slows after the start of a contraction with the lowest rate occurring after the peak, it suggests late decelerations, which are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Administering oxygen can help increase the fetal oxygen reserve and is a common intervention during labor when there are concerns about fetal well-being.

Choice B reason:
Increasing the rate of maintenance IV infusion is typically considered when there is a concern for maternal hypotension or dehydration, which may not be the immediate cause of the observed fetal heart rate pattern. Increasing the rate of an IV infusion can help improve maternal hydration and blood pressure, which in turn can enhance placental perfusion. However, this intervention is more indirect and may not provide the immediate response needed to address fetal heart rate decelerations. It is typically considered after more direct interventions, such as repositioning the mother, have been attempted.

Choice C reason:
Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return to the heart, potentially increasing maternal cardiac output and blood flow to the placenta. While this can be beneficial, it is not the primary intervention for late decelerations. Repositioning the mother to improve uteroplacental circulation is generally the first step.
Choice D reason:
Placing the client in the lateral position is often the first action taken when late decelerations are observed. This position helps improve uteroplacental blood flow and can quickly address potential issues related to fetal oxygenation. This position helps to relieve pressure on the inferior vena cava and aorta, which can be compressed by the gravid uterus, especially in the supine position. Relieving this pressure helps to improve uteroplacental circulation and can quickly address the cause of late decelerations, which is often related to compromised blood flow to the placenta.

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A client is prescribed lisinopril 20 mg PO daily for the treatment of hypertension. Which finding would alert the nurse that a side effect of the medication has occurred?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is discussing gout with a client who is concerned about developing the disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as risk factors for this disease? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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