A client is receiving gentamicin every 12 hours IVPB for an infection. The nurse has administered the 0800 dose, which is prescribed to run over 1 hour. The physician prescribed peak and trough levels to be drawn. The nurse recognizes that the peak level will be drawn at

0730

1000

2000

1930

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

This is the correct time to draw the peak level. The peak level is the highest concentration of the drug in the blood, which typically occurs about 30 minutes to an hour after the end of the infusion.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Infections, including urinary tract infections, can increase insulin resistance and elevate blood glucose levels, potentially leading to DKA. The stress response from infection can also increase cortisol levels, further contributing to hyperglycemia.
B. Decreased caloric intake can lead to inadequate insulin levels relative to the body’s needs. In Type 1 diabetes, if insulin is not sufficient to metabolize glucose (due to low intake or other reasons), the body may resort to fat metabolism, leading to the production of ketones and the development of DKA.
C. While exercise can affect blood glucose levels, it typically lowers them and is not a direct cause of DKA. In fact, moderate aerobic exercise is usually encouraged for managing diabetes. However, if blood glucose levels are already high before exercise, it may exacerbate the situation, but aerobic exercise itself is not a cause of DKA.
D. Clogged tubing can prevent insulin delivery, leading to insufficient insulin levels. This lack of insulin can result in elevated blood glucose levels and, ultimately, the risk of DKA if not addressed.
E. Not taking enough insulin is a primary cause of DKA in Type 1 diabetes. Without adequate insulin, the body cannot utilize glucose properly, leading to increased fat metabolism and the production of ketones, which can cause DKA.

A. demonstrating good control of blood glucose. B. at increased risk for developing hyperglycemia. C. demonstrating signs of insulin resistance. D. at increased risk for developing hypoglycemia.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The client's fasting blood glucose levels (70-80 mg/dl) are within the normal range, and a post- prandial blood glucose level below 200 mg/dl is also considered well-controlled, particularly for someone on an intensified insulin regimen. The hemoglobin A1c level of 4.5% indicates excellent long- term glucose control, typically representing average blood glucose levels of around 90 mg/dl.
B. Hyperglycemia is characterized by elevated blood glucose levels. Given the client's consistently normal fasting and post-prandial levels, they are not at an increased risk for hyperglycemia. Instead, they are maintaining their glucose levels well.
C. Insulin resistance typically manifests as elevated blood glucose levels despite adequate insulin levels or increased insulin requirements. In this case, the client's blood glucose levels are well-controlled, indicating that they are likely responding well to insulin therapy and are not showing signs of insulin resistance.
D. While the client’s blood glucose levels are well-controlled, the risk for hypoglycemia depends on various factors, including insulin dosage, timing, and food intake. However, consistently normal levels do not directly indicate a risk for hypoglycemia unless insulin doses are excessively high or meals are skipped. Therefore, this choice is not justified given the data provided.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A client is receiving gentamicin every 12 hours IVPB for an infection. The nurse has administered the 0800 dose, which is prescribed to run over 1 hour. The physician prescribed peak and trough levels to be drawn. The nurse recognizes that the peak level will be drawn at

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is teaching an adult client with Type 1 diabetes that causes for the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) are (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

The client, on an intensified insulin regimen, consistently has a fasting blood glucose between 70 and 80 mg/dl, a post prandial blood glucose level below 200 mg/dl, and a hemoglobin A1c level of 4.5%. What is the nurse's interpretation of these findings? The client is:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client who is three hours postoperative left leg below the knee amputation (BKA). The client tells the nurse. "My left foot is killing me. Please do something!" Which intervention should the nurse implement?

A client with a deep vein thrombosis has been receiving warfarin sodium 2.5 mg PO daily. The client's International Normalized Ratio (INR) is 5.0. The nurse is aware that the medication dose needs to be:

A client is ordered 450 ml of Normal Saline Solution over 3 hours. The drop factor on the IV tubing is 15 drops per ml. At what rate should the nurse regulate the IV?

A client screened for diabetes has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dl. The nurse will plan to teach the client about

A newly admitted client has been prescribed sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim. The nurse understands that this medication is contraindicated based on which lab result?

A client diagnosed with diabetes has severe peripheral neuropathy, resulting in numbness and reduced sensation. Which intervention should the nurse teach the client to prevent injury as a result of this complication?

The client has just returned to the surgical unit following femoral-popliteal bypass surgery of the right leg. The nurse should place the client in which position?

What factors in the history of a client with schizoaffective disorders puts the client at higher risk for type 2 diabetes? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)