A client is receiving (Pitocin) oxytocin to induce labor. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse maternal effects?
Jaundice
Dehydration
Uterine hyperstimulation.
Maternal bradycardia
The Correct Answer is C
A. Jaundice. Oxytocin does not cause jaundice in the mother. Jaundice is typically related to liver dysfunction, hemolysis, or bile obstruction and is not an expected side effect of oxytocin administration.
B. Dehydration. While prolonged labor induction may contribute to dehydration if fluid intake is insufficient, oxytocin itself does not directly cause dehydration. IV fluids are typically administered alongside oxytocin to maintain hydration during labor.
C. Uterine hyperstimulation. Uterine hyperstimulation (tachysystole), defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes, is a serious complication of oxytocin administration. It can lead to fetal distress, uterine rupture, and impaired placental perfusion. If hyperstimulation occurs, the nurse should discontinue oxytocin, reposition the patient, provide oxygen, and notify the provider.
D. Maternal bradycardia. Oxytocin does not typically cause bradycardia. Maternal side effects are more commonly tachycardia, hypertension, or fluid retention. Fetal bradycardia, however, can occur if uterine hyperstimulation leads to fetal hypoxia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Call for a STAT magnesium level. While obtaining a magnesium level is important to confirm magnesium toxicity, the priority action is to stop or reduce the infusion immediately to prevent further toxicity and respiratory depression.
B. Do nothing, this is the expected action of magnesium. Absent deep tendon reflexes, lethargy, and respiratory depression (RR 9) are signs of magnesium toxicity, not expected therapeutic effects. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory and cardiac complications.
C. Prepare to administer hydralazine. Hydralazine is used to treat hypertension in preeclampsia, but this patient’s blood pressure is not critically high, and the primary concern is magnesium toxicity, not hypertension. Administering hydralazine would not address the immediate life-threatening issue.
D. Decrease or Discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion. The first action in magnesium toxicity is to stop or reduce the infusion to prevent further accumulation. If symptoms worsen, calcium gluconate, the antidote for magnesium toxicity, may be administered to reverse its effects, especially if respiratory depression progresses.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. No action is necessary since a decrease in the woman's blood pressure is expected. While a drop in blood pressure is a common side effect of a spinal block, a 20% decrease is significant and can compromise placental perfusion, leading to fetal distress. Intervention is necessary to restore circulation.
B. Decrease her intravenous (IV) rate to a keep vein-open rate. This is incorrect because IV fluids help counteract hypotension. Instead of decreasing the IV rate, the nurse may need to increase fluid administration to improve blood pressure and maintain perfusion.
C. Encourage her to empty her bladder. A full bladder can affect labor progression but does not directly cause or correct hypotension. The priority in this scenario is restoring blood pressure to ensure adequate fetal oxygenation.
D. Turn the woman to the left lateral position or place a pillow under her hip. This is the most appropriate intervention. A left lateral position or elevating her right hip helps relieve aortocaval compression, improving blood flow to the uterus and stabilizing blood pressure. Additional interventions, such as IV fluid boluses or vasopressors (e.g., ephedrine), may be needed if hypotension persists.
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