The laboring patient is being augmented with oxytocin and is experiencing contractions every 3-4 minutes lasting 60 seconds. The patient's fetal heart rate is ranging from 130-140 beats per minute (BPM) with moderate variability of 6-10 beats per minute. No decelerations are noted. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Insert an internal fetal scalp electrode monitor
Contact the doctor at once and reposition the patient
Document the finding in the patient's medical record
Discontinue the IV fluid containing Pitocin (oxytocin)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Insert an internal fetal scalp electrode monitor. There is no indication for an internal fetal monitor, as the external monitoring shows a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern with moderate variability and no decelerations. Internal monitoring is typically used when external monitoring is inadequate or when fetal distress is suspected.
B. Contact the doctor at once and reposition the patient. There is no fetal distress or abnormal contraction pattern requiring immediate physician intervention. The fetal heart rate is within the normal range (110-160 bpm), and moderate variability indicates adequate oxygenation.
C. Document the finding in the patient's medical record. This is the correct action because the assessment findings indicate a well-oxygenated fetus and a normal labor progression. Contractions every 3-4 minutes lasting 60 seconds are within the expected range for oxytocin augmentation, and no abnormalities are present.
D. Discontinue the IV fluid containing Pitocin (oxytocin). There is no need to stop the oxytocin infusion, as the contraction pattern is appropriate, and there are no signs of uterine tachysystole or fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure in conditions such as eclampsia. A reduction in blood pressure indicates that the medication is achieving its intended effect of controlling hypertension, reducing the risk of complications like stroke or organ damage.
B. The patient states that her headache is gone. While headaches are a symptom of severe hypertension, their resolution does not directly confirm the effectiveness of hydralazine. Other factors, such as pain relief or improved postpartum recovery, could contribute to headache relief.
C. The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds. Postpartum weight loss is expected due to fluid shifts and loss of pregnancy-related fluids, but it is not a direct measure of hydralazine’s effectiveness. The medication does not act as a diuretic or weight-loss agent.
D. The patient has had no seizures since delivery. While hydralazine helps lower blood pressure, preventing seizures in eclamptic patients is primarily managed with magnesium sulfate, not hydralazine. The absence of seizures is important but does not indicate the specific effectiveness of this antihypertensive medication.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. There is progressive resistance to the effects of insulin. During pregnancy, placental hormones (such as human placental lactogen, estrogen, and progesterone) cause increasing insulin resistance. This ensures that glucose remains available for fetal growth. However, in gestational diabetes, the pancreas cannot compensate with increased insulin production, leading to hyperglycemia.
B. Pregnancy fosters the development of carbohydrate cravings. While some pregnant individuals experience cravings, this is not a defining cause of gestational diabetes. The condition results from hormonal changes leading to insulin resistance, not dietary habits alone.
C. Hypoinsulinemia develops early in the first trimester. Gestational diabetes is not caused by a deficiency of insulin (hypoinsulinemia) but by insulin resistance. In fact, insulin production often increases, but it is insufficient to overcome the resistance caused by placental hormones.
D. Glucose levels decrease to accommodate fetal growth. In a normal pregnancy, glucose levels remain stable, and the fetus actively takes glucose from maternal circulation. However, in gestational diabetes, maternal glucose levels rise due to insulin resistance, increasing the risk of fetal overgrowth (macrosomia).
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