A client is receiving tamsulosin for the management of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Use a twice a week dosing schedule.

Take the medication early in the day.

Stand and sit up slowly.

Reduce daily fluid intake.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Tamsulosin is typically administered once daily, not on a twice-weekly dosing schedule. Instructing the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing frequency is essential for maintaining therapeutic blood levels of the medication and optimizing its effectiveness in managing urinary retention associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

B) While the timing of medication administration can impact its effectiveness, taking tamsulosin early in the day versus later in the day may not significantly affect its therapeutic action. The key consideration with tamsulosin is to maintain consistency in timing to ensure a steady plasma concentration of the drug.

C) Instructing the client to stand and sit up slowly is crucial because tamsulosin, as an alpha-blocker, can cause orthostatic hypotension, especially when first starting the medication or when increasing the dosage. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent falls and dizziness, which are common side effects associated with sudden drops in blood pressure.

D) Reducing daily fluid intake is not advisable, especially for a client with urinary retention. Maintaining adequate hydration is essential for overall health and urinary function. Tamsulosin works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the prostate and bladder neck, facilitating urine flow, but it does not directly affect fluid intake requirements.

Therefore, the most important instruction for the nurse to provide is to stand and sit up slowly to minimize the risk of orthostatic hypotension and associated complications.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Begin cardioversion to stabilize heart rhythm: Cardioversion is not the appropriate intervention for digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity can cause arrhythmias, but the initial action should be to assess and manage the underlying cause, rather than immediately proceeding to cardioversion.

B) Give digoxin by another route to slow absorption: Slowing the absorption of digoxin is not the appropriate action for treating digoxin toxicity. Instead, the focus should be on managing the existing toxicity and preventing further absorption by withholding additional doses.

C) Administer potassium to stabilize the heart rate: While potassium may be indicated as part of the treatment for digoxin toxicity, particularly if hypokalemia is contributing to the toxicity, it is not the initial action. The priority is to assess the client’s acid-base and electrolyte values to identify any abnormalities contributing to the toxicity.

D) Check acid-base and electrolyte values: This is the correct action. Digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, and hypomagnesemia. Therefore, assessing the client’s acid-base and electrolyte values is essential to identify and correct any abnormalities contributing to the toxicity. Once identified, appropriate interventions can be implemented to manage the toxicity and stabilize the client’s condition.

A. CT scan that was performed six months earlier. B. Takes metformin hydrochloride for type 2 diabetes mellitus. C. Report of client’s sobriety for the last five years. D. Metal hip prosthesis was placed twenty years ago.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) CT scan that was performed six months earlier: A previous CT scan performed six months earlier does not necessarily require follow-up by the nurse. However, it would be important to review the results of the previous CT scan to compare findings and assess for any changes over time.

B) Takes metformin hydrochloride for type 2 diabetes mellitus: This is the correct answer. Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and contrast media used in CT scans can potentially cause kidney damage, particularly in clients with pre-existing renal impairment. Therefore, clients taking metformin may be at increased risk of developing lactic acidosis if renal function is compromised. It is essential for the nurse to follow up on this information and coordinate with the healthcare provider to determine whether metformin should be temporarily discontinued before the CT scan and when it can be safely resumed.

C) Report of client’s sobriety for the last five years: The client’s sobriety status for the last five years is not directly relevant to the CT scan with contrast for evaluating pulmonary embolism. While substance use history is important for overall health assessment, it does not specifically require follow-up related to the CT scan.

D) Metal hip prosthesis was placed twenty years ago: The presence of a metal hip prosthesis placed twenty years ago may be relevant for certain imaging studies, such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) MRI, but it is not directly related to the CT scan with contrast for pulmonary embolism evaluation. Therefore, it does not require immediate follow-up by the nurse in this context.

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A client is receiving tamsulosin for the management of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is reviewing the client’s laboratory results. Based on a client’s serum digoxin level, the client is diagnosed with digoxin toxicity. Which action should the nurse expect to implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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