A client presents to the emergency department complaining of headaches and blurred vision. The client's vital signs are as follows, Pulse 102 beats/minute, BP 172/92. RR 20 breaths/minute, SpO2.97% on room air temperature of 98.64. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this patient?

Administer IV hydralazine and monitor blood pressure

Administer oxygen at 10 liters/minute by non rebreather mask

Administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO re-check temperature

Infuse 0.9% sodium chioride at 120 mL/hour

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) "Administer IV hydralazine and monitor blood pressure":
. The patient's elevated blood pressure (172/92 mmHg), along with headaches and blurred vision, could indicate a hypertensive emergency, a serious condition where extremely high blood pressure can cause acute organ damage. Hydralazine is a common intravenous antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure quickly in these situations. The nurse should administer hydralazine as prescribed and closely monitor the blood pressure to prevent complications like stroke, heart failure, or kidney damage. Blood pressure management is the priority, as the patient's symptoms are likely related to the elevated BP.

B) "Administer oxygen at 10 liters/minute by non-rebreather mask":
. While oxygen therapy may be appropriate for patients with respiratory distress or hypoxia, the patient's SpO2 is 97% on room air, indicating that there is no immediate oxygenation issue. Administering oxygen unnecessarily could lead to oxygen toxicity, and it is not the priority in this case. The patient's main concern is their elevated blood pressure, which requires urgent management.

C) "Administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO re-check temperature":
. While headaches are one of the patient's complaints, there is no indication of fever (the temperature is 98.6°F). Administering acetaminophen would be appropriate for pain relief, but it is not the priority in this case. The elevated blood pressure and potential hypertensive emergency are the primary issues that need to be addressed first.

D) "Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride at 120 mL/hour":
. Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is typically used for hydration, but there is no indication that the patient is dehydrated or that intravenous fluids are the priority. In cases of hypertensive emergency, the goal is to lower blood pressure using antihypertensive medications, not to infuse fluids. Fluid administration could potentially worsen the situation if the elevated blood pressure is not addressed first.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Instruct the patient to swallow the medication with the head tilted backwards:
Tilting the head backward while swallowing may worsen the patient's ability to swallow, especially if they are experiencing facial droop and slurred speech. This position could increase the risk of aspiration or choking. A safer approach involves evaluating the patient’s swallowing ability before giving any oral medications.

B) Place the medication in the back of the mouth on the affected side:
While placing the medication on the unaffected side might seem like an alternative to help with swallowing, it is still important to assess the patient's swallowing ability first. If the patient has difficulty swallowing due to neurological deficits, placing the medication on the affected side could increase the risk of aspiration, leading to complications such as pneumonia.

C) Evaluate the patient’s ability to swallow:
Evaluating the patient's ability to swallow is the most important initial action. Facial droop and slurred speech can indicate potential dysphagia or difficulty swallowing, which could lead to aspiration if medications are given orally without further assessment. The nurse must determine if the patient can swallow safely before administering any oral medications, including aspirin, to prevent complications.

D) Provide the patient with thickened liquids:
Thickened liquids may be helpful for patients with known dysphagia, but this approach is not suitable in this case because the first priority is assessing the patient's swallowing ability. Giving thickened liquids without evaluating swallowing could increase the risk of aspiration if the patient is unable to manage liquids safely. An evaluation should precede any interventions like thickening liquids.

A. GERD B. Hemorrhagic stroke C. Septic shock D. Absence seizure

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. GERD:
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) typically presents with symptoms such as heartburn, regurgitation, and chest pain. It is not related to head trauma or the symptoms described, such as severe headache, vomiting, seizure, and unresponsiveness. GERD is not associated with a fall or neurological events, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this scenario.

B. Hemorrhagic stroke:
A hemorrhagic stroke is a strong suspicion in this case, given the client’s recent fall, the report of a severe headache, vomiting, followed by a seizure and loss of consciousness. These are classic symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, which may result from bleeding in the brain, such as from a hemorrhagic stroke. The client’s hypertension (248/120 mmHg) further increases the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke, particularly in someone on long-term Warfarin, which increases the risk of bleeding. The seizure and unresponsiveness are concerning signs of significant brain injury, and a CT scan or MRI would be essential for confirming this diagnosis.
C. Septic shock:
Septic shock presents with hypotension, fever, tachycardia, and signs of infection. While the client’s elevated temperature (99.2 F) and pulse (102/min) are abnormal, they are not out of proportion to what would be expected with a head injury and potential hemorrhage. Septic shock is unlikely without signs of infection or systemic inflammatory response. The presence of a seizure, headache, and vomiting after trauma suggests a neurological emergency, not sepsis.

D. Absence seizure:
Absence seizures are brief, non-convulsive seizures characterized by a sudden interruption of consciousness, often with a blank stare and lack of motor activity. These seizures are typically seen in younger individuals and are not associated with symptoms such as a severe headache, vomiting, or unresponsiveness following head trauma. The client’s seizure, along with other concerning signs (headache, vomiting, high blood pressure), suggests a more serious neurological event like a hemorrhagic stroke rather than a simple seizure disorder.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who is experiencing facial droop and slurred speech orally. The physician ordered aspirin to be given orally. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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