A nurse is caring for a young female adult client who reports weakness, fatigue, and heavy menstrual periods. The client has a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a hematocrit level of 28 g/dL. The nurse suspects which of the following types of anemia?
Folic acid deficiency anemia
Pernicious anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Sickle cell anemia
The Correct Answer is C
A. Folic acid deficiency anemia:
Folic acid deficiency anemia is characterized by a lack of folate (vitamin B9), which is essential for red blood cell production. Symptoms can include weakness and fatigue, similar to iron-deficiency anemia. However, folic acid deficiency anemia typically does not cause heavy menstrual periods. Laboratory findings may show a low level of folate in the blood, but the hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and hematocrit level of 28 g/dL alone do not specifically indicate folic acid deficiency anemia without considering other factors like mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and red blood cell indices.
B. Pernicious anemia:
Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor, a substance needed for the absorption of vitamin B12. It can lead to symptoms such as weakness and fatigue. However, heavy menstrual periods are not a characteristic feature of pernicious anemia. Laboratory findings may show a low hemoglobin and hematocrit level, but again, other factors such as MCV and vitamin B12 levels would be needed to confirm this type of anemia.
C. Iron-deficiency anemia:
Iron-deficiency anemia occurs due to insufficient iron stores in the body, leading to decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. This type of anemia is commonly associated with symptoms like weakness, fatigue, and heavy menstrual periods in women due to blood loss. The client's hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and hematocrit level of 28 g/dL are consistent with iron-deficiency anemia, making this the most likely choice based on the information provided.
D. Sickle cell anemia:
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin that causes red blood cells to become sickle-shaped and less flexible. It typically presents with symptoms such as anemia, pain crises, and organ damage. However, the client's symptoms of weakness, fatigue, and heavy menstrual periods are not specific to sickle cell anemia. Additionally, sickle cell anemia would have different laboratory findings, including a different pattern on peripheral blood smear and hemoglobin electrophoresis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This result indicates muscle injury but does not specify the source.
This statement is partly correct. An elevated troponin I level does indicate muscle injury, specifically damage to the heart muscle. However, troponin I is highly specific to cardiac muscle, so an elevated level would indeed specify the source as cardiac or myocardial injury.
B. Because the client has a history of unstable angina, this is a poor indicator of myocardial injury.
This statement is incorrect. A history of unstable angina does not diminish the significance of an elevated troponin I level. In fact, unstable angina is itself a serious condition that can lead to myocardial injury or heart attack, and an elevated troponin I level in this context indicates ongoing or recent myocardial damage.
C. This is only an accurate indicator of myocardial damage when it reaches its peak in 24 hours.
This statement is not entirely accurate. While it is true that troponin I levels may continue to rise and peak within 12-24 hours after the onset of myocardial injury, an elevated troponin I level at any point is still a significant indicator of myocardial damage. It's essential to recognize elevated troponin I levels promptly to initiate appropriate interventions and monitor the client's cardiac status closely.
D. This is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury.
This statement is correct. An elevated troponin I level is a highly sensitive and specific marker of myocardial injury. It indicates damage to the heart muscle, which can occur due to conditions like unstable angina, heart attack (myocardial infarction), myocarditis, or other cardiac issues. Therefore, recognizing an elevated troponin I level in a client with unstable angina is crucial for proper management and further evaluation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "Hypertension is the leading cause of death in people your age.": While hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular events and mortality, stating it as the leading cause of death without specific context or statistical data may not provide the most informative response to the client's question.
B. "Hypertension puts you at increased risk of type 1 diabetes and cancer in your age group.": Hypertension is primarily associated with cardiovascular risks such as stroke, heart disease, and kidney disease. While it can contribute to overall health risks, it is not typically linked directly to type 1 diabetes or cancer in the context of this client's question.
C. "Hypertension can cause you to develop dangerous blood clots in your legs that can migrate to your lungs.": While hypertension can contribute to cardiovascular complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE), these are not the primary risks that are typically emphasized when discussing the importance of treating hypertension.
D. "Hypertension greatly increases your risk of stroke and heart disease.": This response is the most relevant and specific to the client's question. Hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke, heart disease (including heart attack and heart failure), and other cardiovascular complications. By treating hypertension and controlling blood pressure within recommended targets, the client can significantly reduce the risk of these serious and potentially life-threatening conditions.
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