A client reports an intermittent dark brown vaginal discharge for the past three days.
The nurse should assess the client for signs of molar pregnancy.
The nurse should evaluate the risk for hypovolemic shock due to blood loss.
The nurse should ensure appropriate laboratory testing for the diagnosis of choriocarcinoma.
The nurse should prioritize preparing the client for suction and curettage.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Molar pregnancy often manifests as intermittent dark brown vaginal discharge due to trophoblastic tissue expulsion. It warrants assessment as it correlates with hCG elevation and abnormal placental development.
Choice B rationale
Although significant blood loss could occur, dark brown discharge is not indicative of active hemorrhage. Hypovolemic shock typically results from acute red blood loss, not the chronic nature of this presentation.
Choice C rationale
Choriocarcinoma is a concern in cases following molar pregnancies, yet dark brown discharge alone does not confirm malignancy. Laboratory testing may be indicated, but it is not the immediate priority here.
Choice D rationale
Suction and curettage are treatment options for molar pregnancy but are contingent upon confirmed diagnosis. This intervention is premature without comprehensive assessment findings suggesting molar pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Intravenous medications are not administered for a nonstress test, which evaluates fetal heart rate response to movement using external monitoring. No pharmacological intervention is needed.
Choice B rationale
Nonstress tests typically last about 20–40 minutes, depending on fetal activity and reactivity. This duration allows sufficient time to observe fetal heart rate accelerations.
Choice C rationale
There are no dietary restrictions for a nonstress test, as the procedure involves non-invasive external monitoring and does not affect digestion or metabolic processes.
Choice D rationale
A nonstress test does not assess fetal lung maturity but evaluates fetal heart rate accelerations in response to fetal movement to ensure fetal well-being.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"B"},"E":{"answers":"A"}}
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Methyldopa is a first-line antihypertensive for pregnancy-induced hypertension. It is safe, effective, and preferred due to its minimal placental transfer and limited fetal impact.
Choice B rationale
Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic risks, including fetal renal malformations and oligohydramnios. It poses significant dangers to fetal health.
Choice C rationale
Labetalol, a combined alpha and beta-blocker, is recommended for managing hypertensive crises in pregnancy. It offers effective blood pressure control with a favorable safety profile.
Choice D rationale
Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is not recommended in pregnancy. It risks fetal toxicity, including kidney dysfunction and growth restriction, similar to ACE inhibitors.
Choice E rationale
Hydralazine is a vasodilator safe for pregnancy. It is recommended for treating severe hypertensive emergencies, particularly in preeclampsia, due to its efficacy in reducing vascular resistance.
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