A nurse in the labor and delivery triage unit assesses a client who has been pushing for 2.5 hours with minimal progress. The fetal head remains at +2 station.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next action?
Perform a vaginal exam to reassess effacement and dilation.
Notify the primary health care provider about minimal progress.
Prepare the client for vacuum-assisted delivery.
Administer intravenous oxytocin.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Performing a vaginal exam to reassess effacement and dilation is not the immediate next action. At +2 station, the fetal head is already well-engaged in the birth canal, indicating adequate effacement and dilation. Further examination at this stage might not provide additional actionable information. Instead, the priority is to address the minimal progress observed during the prolonged second stage of labor.
Choice B rationale: Notifying the primary health care provider about minimal progress is the most appropriate next action. The client has been pushing for 2.5 hours with minimal progress, which raises concern for potential complications such as cephalopelvic disproportion or maternal exhaustion. Prompt notification allows the provider to evaluate the need for assisted delivery or other interventions to prevent prolonged labor-related complications.
Choice C rationale: Preparing the client for vacuum-assisted delivery might be considered if minimal progress persists and other factors are favorable. However, the decision for instrumental delivery requires the assessment and recommendation of the primary health care provider. Prematurely preparing for this procedure without consulting the provider may overlook other potential interventions or contraindications for assisted delivery.
Choice D rationale: Administering intravenous oxytocin is typically used to augment labor during the first stage, not the second stage where the client is actively pushing. In this scenario, uterine contractions are likely sufficient, given the prolonged pushing. The focus should be on evaluating the cause of minimal progress, which requires provider assessment before considering further interventions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Aspirin is contraindicated in clients receiving heparin therapy due to additive anticoagulant effects, which significantly increase the risk of bleeding complications such as hematomas or internal bleeding.
Choice B rationale
Massaging the injection site can increase the risk of local bleeding or bruising at the site of heparin administration, making this practice unsafe and ineffective for anticoagulant therapy.
Choice C rationale
Breastfeeding is not contraindicated while receiving heparin therapy. Heparin does not significantly transfer into breast milk or harm the neonate, so nursing remains safe during treatment.
Choice D rationale
The abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous heparin injections due to its fatty tissue, which minimizes risks of intramuscular bleeding and ensures consistent drug absorption.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A WBC count of 35,000/mm² exceeds the normal newborn range of 9,000 to 30,000/mm². This elevated count typically indicates infection rather than cephalohematoma-related complications.
Choice B rationale
A glucose level of 35 mg/dL falls below the normal range of greater than 40 to 45 mg/dL. Hypoglycemia is not directly associated with cephalohematoma but may occur in stressed or premature neonates.
Choice C rationale
A bilirubin level of 14.0 mg/dL is above the newborn normal range of 1.0 to 12.0 mg/dL. This indicates hyperbilirubinemia, commonly seen due to red blood cell breakdown in cephalohematoma.
Choice D rationale
A platelet count of 350,000/mm³ is above the normal newborn range of 150,000 to 300,000/mm³. Elevated levels are less likely due to cephalohematoma and often suggest other hematologic conditions.
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