A nurse in the labor and delivery triage unit assesses a client who has been pushing for 2.5 hours with minimal progress. The fetal head remains at +2 station.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next action?
Perform a vaginal exam to reassess effacement and dilation.
Notify the primary health care provider about minimal progress.
Prepare the client for vacuum-assisted delivery.
Administer intravenous oxytocin.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Performing a vaginal exam to reassess effacement and dilation is not the immediate next action. At +2 station, the fetal head is already well-engaged in the birth canal, indicating adequate effacement and dilation. Further examination at this stage might not provide additional actionable information. Instead, the priority is to address the minimal progress observed during the prolonged second stage of labor.
Choice B rationale: Notifying the primary health care provider about minimal progress is the most appropriate next action. The client has been pushing for 2.5 hours with minimal progress, which raises concern for potential complications such as cephalopelvic disproportion or maternal exhaustion. Prompt notification allows the provider to evaluate the need for assisted delivery or other interventions to prevent prolonged labor-related complications.
Choice C rationale: Preparing the client for vacuum-assisted delivery might be considered if minimal progress persists and other factors are favorable. However, the decision for instrumental delivery requires the assessment and recommendation of the primary health care provider. Prematurely preparing for this procedure without consulting the provider may overlook other potential interventions or contraindications for assisted delivery.
Choice D rationale: Administering intravenous oxytocin is typically used to augment labor during the first stage, not the second stage where the client is actively pushing. In this scenario, uterine contractions are likely sufficient, given the prolonged pushing. The focus should be on evaluating the cause of minimal progress, which requires provider assessment before considering further interventions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Terbutaline is contraindicated in heart disease because it can cause tachycardia and arrhythmias, worsening cardiac conditions. Cardiovascular side effects result from its beta-adrenergic agonist action.
Choice B rationale
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is not a contraindication for terbutaline. The medication can be used to delay labor regardless of early cervical changes.
Choice C rationale
Gestational age of 34 weeks is not a contraindication. Terbutaline can be administered to halt preterm labor at this gestational stage if needed.
Choice D rationale
Allergy to penicillin does not contraindicate terbutaline use, as the medication belongs to a different pharmacological class and lacks cross-reactivity with penicillins.
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Continuous monitoring of fetal heart rate provides early detection of distress in placenta previa cases, ensuring timely intervention to prevent complications such as fetal hypoxia or preterm birth.
Choice B rationale
Betamethasone accelerates fetal lung maturity, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome if preterm delivery occurs, which is crucial in placenta previa cases at 35 weeks of gestation.
Choice C rationale
Cervical checks in placenta previa cases increase the risk of bleeding and further complications due to disruption of placental attachment, contraindicating frequent dilation assessments.
Choice D rationale
Misoprostol is contraindicated in placenta previa due to its potential to induce uterine contractions, which can worsen bleeding and lead to placental separation or fetal harm.
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