A client survived a workplace accident that claimed the lives of many of the client's colleagues several months ago. The client has recently sought care for the treatment of depression. How should the nurse best understand the client's current mental health problem?
The client's depression most likely occurred prior to the disaster.
The client is experiencing a common response following a disaster.
The client is not able to appreciate the fact they survived the disaster.
The client most likely feels guilty about actions they took during the disaster.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Experiencing depression following a disaster is a common response. Survivors often experience a range of emotional responses, including depression, due to the trauma and loss associated with the event.
A. The depression is more likely related to the traumatic event rather than a pre-existing condition.
C. While survivors may struggle with feelings of guilt or disbelief, the focus should be on understanding the depression as a response to the trauma experienced.
D. Although feelings of guilt may be present, it is more pertinent to address the depression as a common mental health issue following a traumatic event.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An HbA1c level of 7.5% indicates suboptimal long-term glucose control. The target for many diabetic patients is usually below 7%, but it may not require immediate action compared to more acute indicators.
B. A 2-hour post-prandial blood glucose level of 122 mg/dL is slightly above the normal range but not significantly high. This result alone is not as indicative of inadequate control as other values.
C. A random blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates poor glucose control. This value is much higher than the normal range and suggests a need for further teaching and adjustment of diabetes management.
D. A fasting blood glucose level of 48 mg/dL is low and could indicate hypoglycemia rather than inadequate control. This level requires immediate attention but does not reflect poor long-term diabetes management.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Intravenous fluid administration is anticipated as hydration can help reduce the viscosity of sickled cells, improving circulation and potentially reducing vaso-occlusive events.
Ice packs to the affected area are nonessential and could potentially be contraindicated, as cold can cause vasoconstriction and may exacerbate pain.
Ambulation is nonessential during acute pain episodes and should be encouraged when the patient is comfortable and pain is controlled.
Hydromorphone IV for pain is anticipated because it is a stronger opioid than morphine and may be necessary if the pain is unresponsive to oral morphine sulfate.
Acetaminophen PO for pain is nonessential in this scenario as it is unlikely to provide adequate pain relief for severe vaso-occlusive pain.
Oxygen therapy is nonessential given the client's SpO2 is 95% on room air, indicating adequate oxygen saturation; however, it may be considered if there is evidence of hypoxia or respiratory distress. It is crucial to monitor the client's response to pain management interventions and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.
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