A client sustained a head injury when falling from a ladder. While in the hospital, the client begins voiding large amounts of clear urine and reports being very thirsty. The client states feeling weak and having experienced an 8-pound weight loss since admission. What condition does the nurse expect the client to be tested for?
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
Pituitary tumor
Hypothyroidism
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
The Correct Answer is A
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Diabetes insipidus is likely due to the client’s symptoms of polyuria, thirst, and weight loss following a head injury. Trauma can disrupt the posterior pituitary, reducing ADH secretion, leading to excessive dilute urine output, dehydration, and subsequent thirst and weight loss from fluid depletion, consistent with central DI.
Choice B reason: A pituitary tumor may cause diabetes insipidus but is not the condition itself. Tumors can disrupt ADH production, but the symptoms described—polyuria, thirst, and weight loss—point directly to diabetes insipidus as the primary condition, with a tumor being a potential underlying cause requiring further investigation.
Choice C reason: Hypothyroidism, caused by thyroid hormone deficiency, leads to symptoms like fatigue and weight gain, not polyuria or weight loss. It is unrelated to head injury or ADH dysfunction, making it an unlikely diagnosis for the client’s symptoms of excessive urine output and dehydration.
Choice D reason: SIADH causes water retention, leading to concentrated urine, hyponatremia, and potential weight gain, opposite to the client’s symptoms of dilute urine, weight loss, and thirst. Head injury may cause SIADH, but the clinical presentation aligns with diabetes insipidus, not water retention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Consulting the provider about discontinuing heparin is critical, as the client’s laboratory findings show a significant platelet drop (170,000 to 70,000/mm3), suggesting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). HIT involves immune-mediated platelet destruction, increasing thrombosis risk. Stopping heparin prevents further platelet decline and thrombotic complications, making this the most urgent action.
Choice B reason: Increasing the heparin infusion is dangerous, as the platelet drop suggests HIT, where heparin triggers platelet activation and clotting. Further heparin administration could worsen thrombocytopenia and increase thrombosis risk, leading to severe complications like pulmonary embolism or stroke, making this action contraindicated.
Choice C reason: Beginning warfarin is inappropriate without addressing the platelet drop, likely due to HIT. Warfarin does not reverse thrombocytopenia and may increase bleeding risk in a thrombocytopenic patient. Heparin must be stopped first, and alternative anticoagulants considered, making warfarin initiation premature and risky.
Choice D reason: Continuing the current heparin rate is unsafe, as the significant platelet decline indicates possible HIT. Maintaining heparin could exacerbate platelet destruction and thrombosis risk, leading to life-threatening complications. Consulting the provider to discontinue heparin and investigate HIT is the priority to ensure patient safety.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Bundle branch block affects ventricular conduction but does not typically cause emboli. It may lead to dyssynchrony but lacks the stasis in the atria that promotes clot formation, making it less associated with cardiogenic embolic strokes compared to atrial fibrillation’s thrombus-forming mechanism.
Choice B reason: Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening arrhythmia affecting the ventricles, causing hemodynamic instability but not typically embolic strokes. It does not promote atrial stasis or clot formation, which are necessary for cardiogenic emboli to travel to the brain, unlike atrial fibrillation.
Choice C reason: Supraventricular tachycardia causes rapid heart rates above the ventricles but is less likely to form atrial clots than atrial fibrillation. It does not typically cause the prolonged stasis needed for thrombus formation, making it less associated with embolic strokes in the brain.
Choice D reason: Atrial fibrillation is strongly associated with cardiogenic embolic strokes. It causes irregular atrial contractions, leading to blood stasis in the atria, promoting thrombus formation. These clots can embolize to the brain, causing ischemic stroke, making it a key risk factor requiring anticoagulation.
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