A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)
Unusual bleeding or bruising
Blood in urine or stool
Abdominal pain or swelling
Headache or dizziness
Shortness of breath.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa) is a medication that prevents blood clots and reduces the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation.
However, it can also cause bleeding as a side effect.
Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to report any signs of unusual bleeding or bruising, blood in urine or stool, or abdominal pain or swelling immediately. These could indicate a serious complication such as gastrointestinal bleeding, hemorrhage, or internal organ damage.
Choice D, headache or dizziness, is not a correct answer.
Although these symptoms could be caused by dabigatran, they are not as serious or urgent as bleeding.
They could also be due to other factors such as dehydration, low blood pressure, or stress. The nurse should advise the client to monitor these symptoms and seek medical attention if they persist or worsen.
Choice E, shortness of breath, is not a correct answer.
Shortness of breath is not a common side effect of dabigatran.
However, it could be a symptom of atrial fibrillation or its complications such as heart failure or stroke. The nurse should educate the client about the signs and symptoms of these conditions and instruct them to call 911 if they experience chest pain, palpitations, fainting, or weakness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This statement indicates that the patient understands that rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is an anticoagulant that can increase the risk of bleeding and bruising.The patient should avoid activities that may cause injury, such as contact sports, sharp objects, or falls.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin is also an antiplatelet drug that can further increase the risk of bleeding when taken with rivaroxaban.The patient should not take aspirin or any other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) without consulting the prescriber.
Choice C is wrong because rivaroxaban can be taken with or without food.The patient does not need to take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset or absorption problems.
Choice D is wrong because rivaroxaban should be taken as prescribed and not stopped abruptly without consulting the prescriber.Stopping the medication can increase the risk of blood clots and stroke.The patient should not stop taking the medication even if they feel better or have no symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.
Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one.This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.
Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.
Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy.In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.
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