A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)

Unusual bleeding or bruising

Blood in urine or stool

Abdominal pain or swelling

Headache or dizziness

Shortness of breath.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,C

Dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa) is a medication that prevents blood clots and reduces the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation.

However, it can also cause bleeding as a side effect.

Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to report any signs of unusual bleeding or bruising, blood in urine or stool, or abdominal pain or swelling immediately. These could indicate a serious complication such as gastrointestinal bleeding, hemorrhage, or internal organ damage.

Choice D, headache or dizziness, is not a correct answer.

Although these symptoms could be caused by dabigatran, they are not as serious or urgent as bleeding.

They could also be due to other factors such as dehydration, low blood pressure, or stress. The nurse should advise the client to monitor these symptoms and seek medical attention if they persist or worsen.

Choice E, shortness of breath, is not a correct answer.

Shortness of breath is not a common side effect of dabigatran.

However, it could be a symptom of atrial fibrillation or its complications such as heart failure or stroke. The nurse should educate the client about the signs and symptoms of these conditions and instruct them to call 911 if they experience chest pain, palpitations, fainting, or weakness.

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Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A patient with a high aPTT result is at risk for bleeding, so assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding is important.

Holding heparin therapy per protocol is also appropriate, as heparin is the cause of the prolonged aPTT.

The other choices are wrong because:

• Choice B is wrong because continuing heparin therapy at the current rate will increase the risk of bleeding and further prolong the aPTT.

• Choice C is wrong because decreasing heparin therapy per protocol is not enough to reverse the effects of heparin.

Heparin should be stopped until the aPTT returns to the therapeutic range.

• Choice E is wrong because increasing heparin therapy per protocol will worsen the situation and cause more bleeding and coagulation problems.

The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, and the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is 60 to 80 seconds.A result of 90 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.

A. Decreased heart rate B. Increased contractility C. Dilated coronary arteries D. Reduced blood pressure E. E. Relieved chest pain.

Correct Answer is ["C","E"]

Explanation

Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used to treat variant angina by dilating the coronary arteries and relieving the chest pain caused by spasms.It also reduces blood pressure and heart rate, but these are not the expected outcomes for variant angina.

Choice A is wrong because verapamil decreases heart rate, not increases it.This can help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.

Choice B is wrong because verapamil decreases contractility, not increases it.This can also help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.

Choice D is wrong because verapamil reduces blood pressure, not increases it.This can help lower the workload of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.

Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute, for blood pressure are 120/80 mm Hg or lower, and for contractility are measured by ejection fraction, which is normally 55% or higher.

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A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["C","E"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin therapy to prevent thromboembolism formation. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:

A patient who has atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin and has an INR of 2.5.The patient reports having frequent headaches and asks for an over-the-counter pain reliever.The nurse will recommend which medication?

A patient has been prescribed rivaroxaban (Xarelto) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of medication teaching?

A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)

The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

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