A patient who has atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin and has an INR of 2.5.The patient reports having frequent headaches and asks for an over-the-counter pain reliever.The nurse will recommend which medication?
Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Acetaminophen
Aspirin.
The Correct Answer is C
The patient reports having frequent headaches and asks for an over-the-counter pain reliever. The nurse will recommend acetaminophen, which is the safest pain reliever while taking warfarin. Acetaminophen does not interfere with the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice A is wrong because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and increase the likelihood of harmful bleeding.
NSAIDs can also cause stomach ulcers, kidney damage, and high blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because naproxen is another NSAID that has the same risks as ibuprofen.
Naproxen should be avoided by patients taking warfarin.
Choice D is wrong because aspirin is also an anticoagulant that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.
Aspirin can also cause stomach irritation, ulcers, and allergic reactions.
The normal range for INR is 2 to 3 for patients with atrial fibrillation who are taking warfarin.
An INR of 2.5 indicates that the patient’s blood is taking longer to clot than normal, but not too long.
The patient should have regular blood tests to monitor their INR and adjust their warfarin dose if needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) who require urgent surgery. Argatroban has a half-life of about 40 to 50 minutes and is cleared by the liver.The infusion should be stopped at least 4 hours before the surgery to allow adequate time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off.The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be monitored before and after the infusion to assess the degree of anticoagulation.
Choice A is wrong because 2 hours is not enough time to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may still have a high risk of bleeding if the aPTT is prolonged.
Choice C is wrong because 6 hours is longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may have a higher risk of thrombosis if the anticoagulation effect is too low.
Choice D is wrong because 8 hours is much longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may have a very low level of anticoagulation and a high risk of thrombosis if the infusion is stopped for too long.
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
The nurse should include headache and dyspnea as potential adverse effects of bivalirudin.According to the drug information from various sources, bivalirudin can cause common side effects such as headache, nausea, low or high blood pressure, chest pain, abdominal pain, and shortness of breath (dyspnea).
These side effects should be reported to the provider if they are severe or persistent.
Choice B is wrong because fever is not a common side effect of bivalirudin.
However, fever can be a sign of infection or an allergic reaction to the drug, which should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice C is wrong because chest pain is not an adverse effect of bivalirudin, but rather a symptom of angina, which is one of the conditions that bivalirudin is used to treat.
Chest pain can also indicate a heart attack or other serious cardiac problems, which require immediate medical attention.
Choice D is wrong because backache is not a common side effect of bivalirudin.
However, backache can be a sign of bleeding in the kidneys or other organs, which can be a serious complication of bivalirudin therapy.
Therefore, any unusual pain or swelling in the back or abdomen should be reported to the provider as soon as possible.
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