A patient who has atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin and has an INR of 2.5.The patient reports having frequent headaches and asks for an over-the-counter pain reliever.The nurse will recommend which medication?

Ibuprofen

Naproxen

Acetaminophen

Aspirin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The patient reports having frequent headaches and asks for an over-the-counter pain reliever. The nurse will recommend acetaminophen, which is the safest pain reliever while taking warfarin. Acetaminophen does not interfere with the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice A is wrong because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and increase the likelihood of harmful bleeding.

NSAIDs can also cause stomach ulcers, kidney damage, and high blood pressure.

Choice B is wrong because naproxen is another NSAID that has the same risks as ibuprofen.

Naproxen should be avoided by patients taking warfarin.

Choice D is wrong because aspirin is also an anticoagulant that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.

Aspirin can also cause stomach irritation, ulcers, and allergic reactions.

The normal range for INR is 2 to 3 for patients with atrial fibrillation who are taking warfarin.

An INR of 2.5 indicates that the patient’s blood is taking longer to clot than normal, but not too long.

The patient should have regular blood tests to monitor their INR and adjust their warfarin dose if needed.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis.The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.

Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis.Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.

Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation.Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation.Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.

Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots.Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications.Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.

A. 2 hours B. 4 hours C. 6 hours D. 8 hours.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) who require urgent surgery. Argatroban has a half-life of about 40 to 50 minutes and is cleared by the liver.The infusion should be stopped at least 4 hours before the surgery to allow adequate time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off.The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be monitored before and after the infusion to assess the degree of anticoagulation.

Choice A is wrong because 2 hours is not enough time to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may still have a high risk of bleeding if the aPTT is prolonged.

Choice C is wrong because 6 hours is longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a higher risk of thrombosis if the anticoagulation effect is too low.

Choice D is wrong because 8 hours is much longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a very low level of anticoagulation and a high risk of thrombosis if the infusion is stopped for too long.

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A patient who has atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin and has an INR of 2.5.The patient reports having frequent headaches and asks for an over-the-counter pain reliever.The nurse will recommend which medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving argatroban IV for HIT and requires urgent surgery. The nurse should stop the infusion at least how many hours before the surgery?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who is prescribed dabigatran and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications can increase the risk of bleeding in this client?

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Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:

A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and is receiving enoxaparin therapy subcutaneously once daily at home. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately?

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously for prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The nurse should instruct the patient to:

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