A patient who has atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin and has an INR of 2.5.The patient reports having frequent headaches and asks for an over-the-counter pain reliever.The nurse will recommend which medication?
Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Acetaminophen
Aspirin.
The Correct Answer is C
The patient reports having frequent headaches and asks for an over-the-counter pain reliever. The nurse will recommend acetaminophen, which is the safest pain reliever while taking warfarin. Acetaminophen does not interfere with the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice A is wrong because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and increase the likelihood of harmful bleeding.
NSAIDs can also cause stomach ulcers, kidney damage, and high blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because naproxen is another NSAID that has the same risks as ibuprofen.
Naproxen should be avoided by patients taking warfarin.
Choice D is wrong because aspirin is also an anticoagulant that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.
Aspirin can also cause stomach irritation, ulcers, and allergic reactions.
The normal range for INR is 2 to 3 for patients with atrial fibrillation who are taking warfarin.
An INR of 2.5 indicates that the patient’s blood is taking longer to clot than normal, but not too long.
The patient should have regular blood tests to monitor their INR and adjust their warfarin dose if needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
Dabigatran (Pradaxa) is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that inhibits thrombin, a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade.
Dabigatran prolongs the aPTT, which is a measure of the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation.The aPTT can be used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of dabigatran, although routine monitoring is not required.
Choice A) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are not affected by dabigatran.
PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.
Choice B) International normalized ratio (INR) is wrong because INR is a standardized version of PT that is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.
INR is not affected by dabigatran.
Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because platelet count is a measure of the number of platelets in the blood, which are involved in primary hemostasis.
Platelet count is not affected by dabigatran, which acts on secondary hemostasis.
Normal ranges for these tests are:
• aPTT: 25 to 35 seconds
• PT: 11 to 13.5 seconds
• INR: 0.8 to 1.2
• Platelet count: 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter of blood
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.
Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one.This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.
Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.
Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy.In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.
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