Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:
A 55-year-old male patient who is post-op day 1 from brain surgery.
A 45-year-old female patient with a pulmonary embolism.
A 36-year-old male patient with active peptic ulcer disease.
A 43-year-old female with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation.
Correct Answer : A,C
Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits blood clotting and prevents harmful clots from forming in blood vessels. However, heparin can also cause some serious side effects, such as bleeding, bruising, low platelet count, allergic reactions, and osteoporosis.
Therefore, patients who are at a high risk for developing these adverse effects should be monitored closely and have their heparin dose adjusted accordingly.
Choice A is correct because a patient who is post-op day 1 from brain surgery has a high risk of bleeding from the surgical site or intracranially. Heparin can increase this risk and cause life-threatening hemorrhage.
Therefore, this patient should not receive heparin unless absolutely necessary and under strict supervision.
Choice B is wrong because a patient with a pulmonary embolism (PE) is a candidate for heparin therapy.
A PE is a blood clot that blocks the blood flow to the lungs and can cause respiratory failure and death. Heparin can prevent the clot from becoming larger and causing more damage, and also prevent new clots from forming.
Therefore, this patient would benefit from heparin therapy and is not at a high risk of adverse effects.
Choice C is correct because a patient with active peptic ulcer disease (PUD) has a high risk of bleeding from the stomach or duodenum.
PUD is a condition where the lining of the digestive tract is eroded by stomach acid and bacteria. Heparin can worsen this condition and cause ulcer bleeding or perforation.
Therefore, this patient should avoid heparin therapy unless absolutely necessary and under strict supervision.
Choice D is wrong because a patient with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation (AF) is a candidate for heparin therapy.
AF is an irregular heartbeat that can cause blood clots to form in the heart chambers and travel to other organs, such as the brain or lungs. Heparin can prevent these clots from forming and reduce the risk of stroke or PE.
Therefore, this patient would benefit from heparin therapy and is not at a high risk of adverse effects.
Normal ranges of heparin depend on the type of heparin used (unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin), the method of administration (intravenous or subcutaneous), and the indication for use (prophylaxis or treatment). Generally, the therapeutic range for heparin level is 0.3 - 0.7 U/mL, measured by anti-Xa assay. However, this range may vary depending on the pregnancy stage and the type of heparin used. The dose of heparin should be individualized according to the results of suitable laboratory tests and clinical response.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).This is because aPTT is the most commonly used laboratory test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy.
Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of thrombin and fibrin, which are essential for blood clotting.Heparin therapy is indicated for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a condition where blood clots form in the deep veins of the legs or pelvis.
Choice B) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because PT is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.
Warfarin is another anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.Warfarin therapy is also indicated for the treatment of DVT, but it has a different mechanism of action and monitoring than heparin therapy.
Choice C) International normalized ratio (INR) is wrong because INR is a standardized way of reporting PT results that accounts for the variability of different laboratory methods.INR is also used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.
Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because platelet count is not directly affected by heparin therapy.However, platelet count should be monitored periodically in patients receiving heparin therapy to detect heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), which is a rare but serious complication of heparin therapy that causes a drop in platelet count and an increased risk of thrombosis.
Choice E) Hemoglobin is wrong because hemoglobin is not directly affected by heparin therapy.However, hemoglobin should be monitored periodically in patients receiving heparin therapy to detect bleeding complications, which are the most common adverse effects of heparin therapy.
The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, but the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range, depending on the indication and protocol.
The normal range for PT is 11 to 13 seconds, and the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy is usually an INR of 2 to 3, depending on the indication and protocol
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis.The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.
Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis.Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.
Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation.Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation.Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.
Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots.Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications.Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.