A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Warfarin

Clopidogrel

Argatroban

Alteplase.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis. The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.

Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis. Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.

Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation. Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.

Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots. Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications. Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).

Dabigatran (Pradaxa) is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that inhibits thrombin, a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade.

Dabigatran prolongs the aPTT, which is a measure of the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation.The aPTT can be used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of dabigatran, although routine monitoring is not required.

Choice A) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are not affected by dabigatran.

PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.

Choice B) International normalized ratio (INR) is wrong because INR is a standardized version of PT that is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.

INR is not affected by dabigatran.

Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because platelet count is a measure of the number of platelets in the blood, which are involved in primary hemostasis.

Platelet count is not affected by dabigatran, which acts on secondary hemostasis.

Normal ranges for these tests are:

• aPTT: 25 to 35 seconds

• PT: 11 to 13.5 seconds

• INR: 0.8 to 1.2

• Platelet count: 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter of blood

A. Assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding B. Continuing heparin therapy at current rate C. Decreasing heparin therapy per protocol D. Holding heparin therapy per protocol E. Increasing heparin therapy per protocol.

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A patient with a high aPTT result is at risk for bleeding, so assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding is important.

Holding heparin therapy per protocol is also appropriate, as heparin is the cause of the prolonged aPTT.

The other choices are wrong because:

• Choice B is wrong because continuing heparin therapy at the current rate will increase the risk of bleeding and further prolong the aPTT.

• Choice C is wrong because decreasing heparin therapy per protocol is not enough to reverse the effects of heparin.

Heparin should be stopped until the aPTT returns to the therapeutic range.

• Choice E is wrong because increasing heparin therapy per protocol will worsen the situation and cause more bleeding and coagulation problems.

The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, and the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is 60 to 80 seconds.A result of 90 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.

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A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient has been prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa) for atrial fibrillation (AF). Which laboratory test should be monitored while on this medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

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