A client who has attempted suicide has an underlying diagnosis of depression. Based on the biochemical function that is most associated with suicidal behavior, the nurse anticipates which medication classification will be ordered for the client?
A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.
An atypical antipsychotic.
A mood stabilizer.
A tricyclic antidepressant.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Suicide in depression is linked to low serotonin, impairing prefrontal cortex regulation and increasing impulsivity. SSRIs increase serotonin, stabilizing amygdala-prefrontal circuits, reducing suicidal ideation by enhancing mood regulation and impulse control, making them the first-line treatment.
Choice B reason: Atypical antipsychotics target dopamine and serotonin receptors for psychosis or mania, not primary suicide risk. Depression-related suicide stems from serotonin deficits, and antipsychotics are less effective for this neurochemical profile, making them inappropriate as first-line treatment.
Choice C reason: Mood stabilizers like lithium address bipolar mood swings, not primary depression-related suicide. Serotonin dysregulation drives suicidal behavior in depression, and stabilizers lack direct serotonin enhancement, making them less effective than SSRIs for this indication.
Choice D reason: Tricyclic antidepressants increase serotonin and norepinephrine but have higher side effect risks, like cardiotoxicity, compared to SSRIs. Serotonin deficits drive suicide risk, and SSRIs are safer and more effective for targeting this neurochemical imbalance in depression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Cerebral atrophy is associated with neurodegenerative diseases, not schizophrenia’s positive symptoms. Hallucinations and delusions stem from dopamine hyperactivity in the mesolimbic pathway, not structural brain loss, making atrophy irrelevant to the acute psychotic symptoms described.
Choice B reason: Organic functional changes are vague and not specific to schizophrenia’s positive symptoms. Dopamine excess in the mesolimbic pathway drives hallucinations and delusions, not unspecified functional changes, making this choice too broad and inaccurate for the mechanism.
Choice C reason: Inadequate dopamine is linked to negative symptoms like apathy, due to prefrontal cortex hypofunction. Positive symptoms like hallucinations result from excessive dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway, making low dopamine an incorrect mechanism for these symptoms.
Choice D reason: Positive symptoms like hallucinations and delusions in schizophrenia result from increased dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway, causing hyperactive neural signaling. This dopamine excess overstimulates D2 receptors, leading to psychotic perceptions and beliefs, accurately explaining the neurological dysfunction.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Asking why may escalate agitation, as anger involves amygdala-driven norepinephrine surges. In a crowded area, this risks further overstimulation, not addressing the immediate need to reduce environmental triggers and stabilize neural hyperactivity for safety.
Choice B reason: Escorting to a quiet area reduces sensory input, calming amygdala-driven anger and norepinephrine release. This de-escalates the situation, engaging prefrontal cortex regulation to prevent further aggression, prioritizing safety in a crowded, stimulating environment.
Choice C reason: Discussing feelings is therapeutic but not the priority in a crowded area. Anger’s amygdala hyperactivity requires immediate de-escalation to reduce norepinephrine-driven impulsivity, making a quiet environment the first step before verbal processing.
Choice D reason: Demanding the patient pick up the table is confrontational, risking escalation of amygdala-driven aggression and norepinephrine surges. It does not address immediate safety or de-escalation needs, making it inappropriate in a volatile, crowded situation.
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