A client who is on the progressive care unit develops supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The clients vital signs: T: 98, HR: 160, BP: 119/71, RR: 19, Sp02 94% on RA. The client presents with no dyspnea, shortness of breath or chest pain. Which action that is included in the hospital dysrhythmia protocol should the nurse do first?
Perform immediate defibrillation.
Perform immediate cardioversion.
Administer Adenosine 6 mg IVP.
Administer Adenosine 12 mg IVP.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Defibrillation is used for life-threatening arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia, not for SVT.
B. Cardioversion is appropriate for certain arrhythmias, but in this case, SVT with a stable pulse can be treated initially with medication like adenosine.
C. Adenosine is the first-line treatment for SVT. The typical starting dose is 6 mg IVP, which can be repeated if necessary. Adenosine works by temporarily blocking the electrical conduction through the AV node, allowing the heart to reset to a normal rhythm.
D. A 12 mg dose of Adenosine is used if the 6 mg dose is ineffective, but the 6 mg dose is typically administered first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Assessing respiratory status is the priority in heart failure exacerbation, as respiratory distress can rapidly worsen and affect oxygenation.
B. While knowing current medications is important, the priority in this situation is addressing the client's respiratory needs.
C. Administering furosemide is part of the management plan but should follow the initial assessment of the client's condition, especially respiratory status.
D. Drawing blood is helpful but not the immediate priority in managing acute heart failure exacerbation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A 19-year-old client with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness: This is the correct choice. Fever and weakness in the context of menorrhagia suggest a possible infection (e.g., toxic shock syndrome) or severe blood loss, which requires immediate evaluation and intervention.
B. A 35-year-old client with heavy spotting after having a progestin-containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago: Spotting after IUD insertion is common and does not suggest an immediate threat to the client’s health.
C. A 39-year-old client who is complaining of 4/10 pain after an abdominal hysterectomy: Mild pain after a hysterectomy is expected and not an emergency.
D. A 42-year-old client with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago: While secondary amenorrhea requires evaluation, it is not as urgent as a client with signs of possible infection or blood loss.
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