A client who is on the progressive care unit develops supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The clients vital signs: T: 98, HR: 160, BP: 119/71, RR: 19, Sp02 94% on RA. The client presents with no dyspnea, shortness of breath or chest pain. Which action that is included in the hospital dysrhythmia protocol should the nurse do first?
Perform immediate defibrillation.
Perform immediate cardioversion.
Administer Adenosine 6 mg IVP.
Administer Adenosine 12 mg IVP.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Defibrillation is used for life-threatening arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia, not for SVT.
B. Cardioversion is appropriate for certain arrhythmias, but in this case, SVT with a stable pulse can be treated initially with medication like adenosine.
C. Adenosine is the first-line treatment for SVT. The typical starting dose is 6 mg IVP, which can be repeated if necessary. Adenosine works by temporarily blocking the electrical conduction through the AV node, allowing the heart to reset to a normal rhythm.
D. A 12 mg dose of Adenosine is used if the 6 mg dose is ineffective, but the 6 mg dose is typically administered first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Sucking on small quantities of ice chips is not appropriate in this case as it may worsen the airway obstruction or cause further irritation.
B. Applying oxygen and continuously monitoring the client's pulse oximetry will help ensure that the client's oxygen saturation remains adequate and that they do not experience respiratory distress or hypoxemia due to inhalation injury. Early intervention is crucial to prevent worsening of respiratory status.
C. Humidified room air can help in cases of airway irritation, but the priority is to ensure oxygenation and avoid hypoxia.
D. Antitussive medications may be indicated later, but airway management and oxygenation take precedence.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A stable client with chronic angina is not in immediate danger, and the scheduled dose of nifedipine is not an urgent priority.
B. The client with unstable angina who has just undergone a heart catheterization with balloon angioplasty requires immediate assessment for complications such as bleeding, clot formation, or re-occlusion of the artery.
C. The 65-year-old post-MI client is stable, and while their anxiety is important to address, it is not an immediate concern compared to other clients.
D. The client post-coronary artery bypass with a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L is stable and does not require urgent intervention.
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