A nurse leaves a coffee shop and sees a man lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and has no pulse and the nurse begins chest compressions. EMS arrives and connects the cardiac monitor displaying this rhythm. Identify the rhythm.
Sinus Rhythm
Ventricular Tachycardia
Ventricular Fibrillation
Sinus Tachycardia
The Correct Answer is C
A. Sinus rhythm is the normal rhythm of the heart with regular P waves, QRS complexes, and T waves. The presence of a sinus rhythm would mean the heart is pumping blood effectively, so the client would not be pulseless. This is inconsistent with the clinical scenario.
B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a fast, regular rhythm originating in the ventricles. VT can lead to pulselessness if not treated, but it has distinct QRS complexes that are wide and regular, unlike the chaotic waveform seen in VF.
C. Ventricular Fibrillation appears as rapid, chaotic electrical activity without identifiable P waves, QRS complexes, or T waves. This rhythm prevents the heart from pumping blood, causing the client to be pulseless and unresponsive. VF is the most common arrhythmia associated with sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.
D. Sinus tachycardia is a fast heart rate (>100 bpm) with regular rhythm, identifiable P waves, and QRS complexes. This rhythm typically occurs in response to stress, fever, or hypovolemia, and the client would have a pulse, which contradicts the scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Potassium chloride is used to treat hypokalemia, not as a warfarin antidote.
B. Vitamin E does not counteract warfarin’s effects and may increase bleeding risk.
C. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, not warfarin.
D. Vitamin K is the appropriate antidote for excessive warfarin, as it promotes the synthesis of clotting factors inhibited by warfarin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A stable client with chronic angina is not in immediate danger, and the scheduled dose of nifedipine is not an urgent priority.
B. The client with unstable angina who has just undergone a heart catheterization with balloon angioplasty requires immediate assessment for complications such as bleeding, clot formation, or re-occlusion of the artery.
C. The 65-year-old post-MI client is stable, and while their anxiety is important to address, it is not an immediate concern compared to other clients.
D. The client post-coronary artery bypass with a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L is stable and does not require urgent intervention.
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