A client who is receiving magnesium sulfate has a urine output of 20 mL/hr. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Naloxone
Protamine
Calcium gluconate
Flumazenil
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Naloxone is not the correct medication. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid overdose, such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. Naloxone has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is a mineral and electrolyte that is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice B reason: Protamine is not the correct medication. Protamine is a heparin antagonist that reverses the effects of heparin overdose, such as bleeding, bruising, and thrombocytopenia. Protamine has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not an anticoagulant.
Choice C reason: Calcium gluconate is the correct medication. Calcium gluconate is a calcium salt that antagonizes the effects of magnesium sulfate overdose, such as hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and muscle weakness. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can occur when the serum magnesium level is above 7.5 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output, and report any signs of toxicity to the provider.
Choice D reason: Flumazenil is not the correct medication. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that reverses the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as drowsiness, confusion, and coma. Flumazenil has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not a sedative.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Client report of a headache is not the nurse's priority to report to the provider. A headache is a common and mild side effect of vancomycin, which is an antibiotic used to treat serious infections. A headache may be caused by dehydration, stress, or other factors, and can be relieved by drinking fluids, resting, or taking analgesics.
Choice B reason: Audible inspiratory stridor is the nurse's priority to report to the provider. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs when breathing in, and indicates a narrowing or obstruction of the airway. Stridor may be a sign of a severe allergic reaction, or anaphylaxis, to vancomycin, which can be life-threatening. Anaphylaxis can also cause swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or throat, difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and shock. The nurse should stop the infusion, administer epinephrine, and monitor the client's vital signs.
Choice C reason: Client report of tinnitus is not the nurse's priority to report to the provider. Tinnitus is a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears, and may be a rare and serious side effect of vancomycin. Tinnitus may indicate damage to the inner ear, or ototoxicity, which can lead to hearing loss. The nurse should check the client's hearing and report any changes to the provider. The provider may adjust the dose or frequency of vancomycin, or switch to another antibiotic.
Choice D reason: Localized redness at the catheter insertion site is not the nurse's priority to report to the provider. Redness at the catheter insertion site may indicate irritation, inflammation, or infection of the skin or vein, and may be caused by the needle, the catheter, or the medication. The nurse should inspect the site, clean it with antiseptic, and apply a sterile dressing. The nurse should also monitor the site for signs of phlebitis, such as pain, swelling, warmth, or pus. The nurse may need to change the catheter or the infusion site if the redness persists or worsens.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Warfarin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a slow onset of action and requires frequent monitoring of the INR (international normalized ratio). Warfarin may be used for long-term anticoagulation, but it is not effective for preventing the formation of new clots.
Choice B reason: Enoxaparin subcutaneous is a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a rapid onset of action and does not require frequent monitoring of the coagulation status. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots.
Choice C reason: Aspirin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a weak anticoagulant effect and may increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the aggregation of platelets and prevents the formation of arterial clots, but it is not effective for preventing venous clots.
Choice D reason: Heparin infusion is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it requires continuous intravenous administration and frequent monitoring of the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin is an unfractionated heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and a high risk of bleeding.
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