A client who received a blood transfusion 2 hours ago is now experiencing symptoms of a transfusion reaction, including fever, chills, and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Administer antipyretics to lower the client's fever.
Prepare to administer a diuretic to manage fluid overload.
Discontinue the blood transfusion immediately.
The Correct Answer is A
A: Notifying the healthcare provider is an important step, but it is not the immediate priority. The nurse's first action should be to address the adverse reaction to prevent further harm to the client.
B: While administering antipyretics may help lower the client's fever, it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is the transfusion reaction. The priority is to stop the reaction from progressing.
C: Preparing to administer a diuretic would be appropriate if fluid overload was the primary concern. However, in the case of a transfusion reaction, the priority is to stop the transfusion to halt the reaction.
D: Discontinuing the blood transfusion immediately is the priority action because it stops the exposure to the blood product that is causing the reaction. Once the transfusion is stopped, further interventions can be assessed and implemented.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect: Administering antipyretics to reduce fever is not the appropriate intervention for an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction involves the destruction of red blood cells, not an elevation in body temperature.
B) Incorrect: Preparing to administer a diuretic is not the appropriate intervention for an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. Fluid overload is not a typical feature of this type of reaction.
C) Correct: Monitoring the client's vital signs frequently is a crucial intervention for an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction can cause rapid onset of severe symptoms, including fever, chills, hypotension, tachycardia, and potential shock.
D) Incorrect: Administering epinephrine is not the appropriate intervention for an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. Epinephrine is used to treat anaphylactic reactions, not hemolytic reactions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct: Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) contains various clotting factors and is used to manage clotting factor deficiencies, including those related to liver disease.
B) Incorrect: Platelets are used to treat thrombocytopenia and platelet dysfunction but do not primarily address clotting factor deficiencies caused by liver disease.
C) Incorrect: Cryoprecipitate is derived from FFP and contains concentrated fibrinogen and other clotting factors. It may be used in some cases of liver disease, but FFP is the more common choice for managing these conditions.
D) Incorrect: Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs) are used to improve oxygenation in anemic clients and are not the primary treatment for clotting factor deficiencies related to liver disease.
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