A client who weighs 176 pounds receives a prescription for enoxaparin sodium 1.5mg/kg/day subcutaneously. The medication is available in 120 mg/0.8 ml. prefiled syringe. How many ml. should the nurse administer? (Enter numerical value only)
The Correct Answer is ["0.8"]
Step 1: Convert the client’s weight from pounds to kg. 1 kg is approximately 2.2 lbs. So, 176 lbs÷ 2.2 = 80 kg (rounded to the nearest whole number).
Step 2: Calculate the total mg of enoxaparin sodium needed per day.
The prescription is for 1.5 mg/kg/day. So, 80 kg × 1.5 mg/kg/day = 120 mg/day.
Step 3: Calculate the mL of enoxaparin sodium needed. The medication is available in a 120 mg/0.8 mL prefilled syringe. So, 120 mg ÷ 120 mg/0.8 mL = 0.8 mL.
The nurse should administer 0.8 mL
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Keep the bed in the lowest position and initiate seizure and fall precautions: While seizure and fall precautions may be necessary for safety, the client's symptoms, including right-sided weakness and sluggish speech, are indicative of a potential stroke rather than a seizure. Immediate intervention to assess for and treat possible stroke is critical.
B. Place an indwelling urinary catheter and measure strict intake and output: Although urinary management may be necessary, it is not the priority in this situation. The client's symptoms suggest a neurological issue that requires urgent assessment and intervention.
C. Maintain elevated positioning of the dependent joints on affected side: Elevating the dependent joints is a strategy used in managing conditions like stroke to prevent complications such as edema, but it does not address the immediate need for stroke assessment and intervention.
D. Start two large bore IV catheters and review inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy: Correct! The client's presentation with right-sided weakness and sluggish speech suggests a possible ischemic stroke. Starting IV access and reviewing inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy (tPA is crucial for timely intervention to restore blood flow and minimize neurological damage.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This hernia is a normal variation that resolves without treatment: Umbilical hernias are common in infants and usually resolve on their own by around 1 to 2 years of age without any specific treatment.
B. An abdominal binder can be worn daily to reduce the protrusion: Using an abdominal binder is not recommended for treating umbilical hernias in infants, as they typically resolve spontaneously and do not require intervention.
C. Restrictive clothing will be adequate to help the hernia go away: Restrictive clothing is not necessary and will not affect the resolution of an umbilical hernia in infants.
D. The quarter should be secured with an elastic bandage wrap: Securing a quarter over the umbilicus with an elastic bandage wrap is not an appropriate treatment for an umbilical hernia and may cause harm.
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