A client with a cold sore on the lip has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus. Which neurological disorder may the client be at risk for in the future?
Myasthenia gravis
Multiple sclerosis
Guillain-Barre syndrome
Bell's palsy
The Correct Answer is D
A. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by weakness and rapid fatigue of voluntary muscles due to impaired communication between nerves and muscles. It is not directly related to HSV infection.
B. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the central nervous system, leading to demyelination of nerve fibers. While the exact cause of MS is not completely understood, it is thought to involve a combination of genetic and environmental factors. HSV is not directly associated with the development of MS.
C. Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) is an acute, autoimmune condition that affects the peripheral nervous system, leading to progressive muscle weakness and paralysis. GBS is often preceded by an infection, and while it is most commonly associated with infections like Campylobacter jejuni, other infections, including HSV, have also been implicated as potential triggers for GBS.
D. Bell's palsy is a condition characterized by sudden, unilateral facial paralysis or weakness due to inflammation of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). HSV has been identified as a potential cause of Bell's palsy, as the virus can lead to inflammation of the facial nerve.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Fluid volume deficit, or dehydration, occurs when the body loses more fluid than it takes in. In this case, the patient has very low urine output, indicating that the kidneys are not excreting enough fluid. Despite the low urine output, the presence of pitting edema suggests that the patient is actually retaining fluid rather than losing it.
B. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate slower than 60 beats per minute. While electrolyte imbalances and fluid imbalances can affect heart rate, bradycardia is not the primary concern associated with the combination of pitting edema and low urine output in this situation.
C. Hypertension (high blood pressure) is a common complication in acute glomerulonephritis. The condition often leads to fluid retention due to reduced kidney function and increased sodium and fluid retention. The presence of pitting edema and very low urine output suggests that the kidneys are not effectively removing excess fluid, which can lead to increased blood pressure.
D. Hyperglycemia refers to elevated blood glucose levels. Acute glomerulonephritis is not directly associated with hyperglycemia. While patients with diabetes can develop renal issues, hyperglycemia itself is not a typical direct complication of acute glomerulonephritis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
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