A client with a history of heart failure arrives at the emergency department describing an onset of fatigue and weakness.
The client has been taking spironolactone 50 mg tablets PO every day.
The nurse receives a report from the lab that the client has a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Compare muscle strength bilaterally.
Observe color and amount of urine.
Determine apical pulse rate and rhythm.
Assess strength of deep tendon reflexes.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Comparing muscle strength bilaterally is important in assessing overall physical health and detecting any potential neuromuscular disorders. However, in the context of a client with a history of heart failure and elevated potassium levels, this would not be the most critical intervention. High potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which can cause serious heart rhythm disturbances.
Choice B rationale
Observing the color and amount of urine can provide valuable information about the client’s hydration status and kidney function. In the case of heart failure, monitoring urine output can help assess the effectiveness of diuretic therapy and the progression of the disease. However, it is not the most immediate concern given the client’s high potassium levels.
Choice C rationale
Determining the apical pulse rate and rhythm is the most important intervention in this scenario. A serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is higher than the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and can cause life-threatening heart rhythm abnormalities. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client’s heart rhythm to detect any abnormalities caused by this electrolyte imbalance.
Choice D rationale
Assessing the strength of deep tendon reflexes can help identify changes in neuromuscular function and is often used in neurological assessments. However, it is not the most critical intervention in the context of elevated potassium levels and heart failure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["100"]
Explanation
Step 1: The child is receiving gentamicin 60 mg every 8 hours IV, which is to be infused over 30 minutes. The medication is delivered by the pharmacy diluted in a 50 ml bag of saline.
Step 2: We need to find the infusion pump’s regulation in mL/hour.
Step 3: Since the medication is to be infused over 30 minutes, we convert this to hours by dividing by 60. So, 30 minutes is 0.5 hours.
Step 4: The rate of infusion is then the total volume (50 mL) divided by the time in hours (0.5 hours).
Step 5: So, the infusion pump’s regulation is (50 mL ÷ 0.5 hours) = 100 mL/hour.
Correct Answer is A,D,B,C
Explanation
- Complete a focused assessment: The first step in managing a patient with abdominal pain and other symptoms is to perform a comprehensive assessment. This will help identify the cause of the symptoms and guide subsequent interventions.
- Offer PRN pain medication: Once the immediate risks have been addressed, managing the patient’s pain is a priority. However, the choice of pain medication will depend on the results of the assessment.
- Send the emesis sample to the lab: Sending the emesis sample to the lab can provide valuable information about the cause of the patient’s symptoms. However, this is not as urgent as the other interventions.
- Elevate the head of the bed: Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce the risk of aspiration, especially in a patient who has vomited. This should be done as soon as possible.
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