A client with a history of heart failure arrives at the emergency department describing an onset of fatigue and weakness.
The client has been taking spironolactone 50 mg tablets PO every day.
The nurse receives a report from the lab that the client has a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Compare muscle strength bilaterally.
Observe color and amount of urine.
Determine apical pulse rate and rhythm.
Assess strength of deep tendon reflexes.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Comparing muscle strength bilaterally is important in assessing overall physical health and detecting any potential neuromuscular disorders. However, in the context of a client with a history of heart failure and elevated potassium levels, this would not be the most critical intervention. High potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which can cause serious heart rhythm disturbances.
Choice B rationale
Observing the color and amount of urine can provide valuable information about the client’s hydration status and kidney function. In the case of heart failure, monitoring urine output can help assess the effectiveness of diuretic therapy and the progression of the disease. However, it is not the most immediate concern given the client’s high potassium levels.
Choice C rationale
Determining the apical pulse rate and rhythm is the most important intervention in this scenario. A serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is higher than the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and can cause life-threatening heart rhythm abnormalities. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client’s heart rhythm to detect any abnormalities caused by this electrolyte imbalance.
Choice D rationale
Assessing the strength of deep tendon reflexes can help identify changes in neuromuscular function and is often used in neurological assessments. However, it is not the most critical intervention in the context of elevated potassium levels and heart failure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monitoring the client’s white blood cell count is important in this case. An elevated white blood cell count is a common sign of infection, and regular monitoring can help assess the client’s response to treatment.
Choice B rationale
Implementing contact precautions for staff and visitors is crucial when caring for a client with a potential VRE infection. VRE is a multi-drug resistant organism that can be spread through direct contact, so strict infection control measures are necessary.
Choice C rationale
Using standard precautions and wearing a mask is generally good practice in healthcare settings to prevent the spread of infections. However, a mask is not specifically required for contact precautions with VRE456.
Choice D rationale
Explaining the purpose of a low bacteria diet is not relevant in this case. While diet can play a role in overall health and recovery, it is not a specific intervention for a client with a potential VRE infection.
Choice E rationale
Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity is an important step in confirming the presence of VRE and determining the most effective antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer is ["60"]
Explanation
Step 1: We know that the medication is labeled as “750 mcg/2.4 mL”. This means that every 2.4 mL of the medication contains 750 mcg of teriparatide.
Step 2: We need to find out how many mL of the medication contains 60 mcg of teriparatide. We can set up a proportion to solve this: 750 mcg : 2.4 mL = 60 mcg : x mL Step 3: Solving for x gives us: x = (60 mcg * 2.4 mL) ÷ 750 mcg Step 4: Calculating the above expression gives us: x =
0.192 mL So, the nurse should administer 0.192 mL of the medication to deliver a dose of 60 mcg of teriparatide.
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