A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease has responded well to treatment with a histamine-2 antagonist. What effect will this nurse explain to the client this drug has?
destroys Helicobacter pylori
coats and protects the stomach lining
increases the pH of secreted hydrochloric acid
reduces the quantity of hydrochloric acid secreted
The Correct Answer is D
A. destroys Helicobacter pylori: Histamine-2 antagonists do not have antibacterial properties and therefore do not eradicate H. pylori. Treating H. pylori requires a combination of antibiotics and acid-suppressing medications in a triple or quadruple therapy regimen.
B. coats and protects the stomach lining: This is the function of gastrointestinal protectants like sucralfate, which form a physical barrier over ulcerated tissue. Histamine-2 antagonists do not create a protective coating but rather work by modulating acid secretion.
C. increases the pH of secreted hydrochloric acid: Histamine-2 antagonists do not change the pH of already secreted acid. Instead, they prevent acid production at the source, thereby reducing the total volume and acidity of gastric secretions over time.
D. reduces the quantity of hydrochloric acid secreted: Histamine-2 antagonists block H2 receptors on gastric parietal cells, which decreases the stimulation of acid production. This leads to a lower volume of hydrochloric acid in the stomach, allowing ulcers to heal more effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["5"]
Explanation
Desired dose per administration = 20 mg.
- Determine the number of administrations in 24 hours.
"twice a day," which means 2 administrations in 24 hours.
- Calculate the total milligrams administered in 24 hours.
Total mg in 24 hours = 20 mg/dose × 2 doses/day
= 40 mg/day.
Available concentration = 40 mg/5 mL.
- Calculate the total milliliters to be given in 24 hours.
Volume (mL) = Total mg in 24 hours / (Available concentration (mg) / Available volume (mL))
= 40 mg / (40 mg / 5 mL)
= 40 mg / 8 mg/mL
= 5 mL.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. renal: Chlorpromazine is metabolized primarily in the liver and excreted via the kidneys, but it does not commonly cause renal toxicity. The renal system is not the main site of adverse effects for this medication.
B. central nervous system (CNS): Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic that works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. The majority of its adverse effects are CNS-related, including sedation, extrapyramidal symptoms, tardive dyskinesia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
C. cardiovascular: Although chlorpromazine can cause hypotension and prolong the QT interval, cardiovascular effects are less common than CNS effects. They are important to monitor but not the predominant source of adverse reactions.
D. integumentary: Skin-related effects such as photosensitivity or allergic reactions may occur but are relatively rare. The integumentary system is not the primary body system affected by chlorpromazine’s mechanism or side effect profile.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.