A client with renal calculi is experiencing hematuria and reports severe flank pain.
Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Obtain a urine specimen for analysis.
Administer a prescribed opioid analgesic.
Strain the urine for the presence of stones.
Prepare the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan.
Prepare the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Obtaining a urine specimen for analysis is an important step in the assessment of the client with renal calculi. However, it is not the most immediate intervention when the client is experiencing severe flank pain and hematuria. Pain management should take precedence.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct answer. Severe flank pain in a client with renal calculi is indicative of renal colic, which is typically excruciating. Administering a prescribed opioid analgesic is the priority to relieve the client's pain and distress.
Choice C rationale:
Straining the urine for the presence of stones is an essential nursing intervention to identify and collect any passed stones. However, it is not the most immediate action when the client is in severe pain. Pain management is the priority.
Choice D rationale:
Preparing the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan is an important diagnostic step to assess the location and size of the renal calculi. However, it is not the most immediate intervention when the client is in severe pain and distress. Pain management should come first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker and is expected to decrease heart rate by inhibiting calcium influx into cardiac cells, particularly in the SA (sinoatrial) node, where it can slow down the heart's electrical impulses.
Choice B rationale:
Increased contractility is not an expected outcome of verapamil use. In fact, verapamil's main action is to decrease myocardial contractility, making it useful for treating conditions like angina and atrial fibrillation.
Choice C rationale:
Verapamil is known to dilate coronary arteries, which can improve blood flow to the heart muscle and relieve symptoms of angina.
Choice D rationale:
Reduced blood pressure is an expected outcome of verapamil use due to its vasodilatory effects on peripheral blood vessels. This can be beneficial in treating hypertension and angina.
Choice E rationale:
Relieved chest pain is an expected outcome of verapamil use, particularly in the case of variant angina (Prinzmetal's angina), as it helps to relax coronary arteries and reduce coronary artery spasm, which is a common cause of chest pain in this condition.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
4012 mg/day is not the correct answer. To calculate the maximum safe dosage of valproic acid, you need to convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. The client's weight in kilograms can be calculated by dividing the weight in pounds by 2.2. Therefore, 176 pounds divided by 2.2 equals 80 kilograms. The maximum safe dosage is 60 mg/kg/day, so 60 mg multiplied by 80 kg equals 4800 mg/day.
Choice B rationale:
Step 1: Convert the client’s weight from pounds to kilograms. We know that 1 kg is approximately equal to 2.2 pounds. So, we have:
176 pounds ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg (approximately)
Step 2: Calculate the maximum safe dosage for the client. We know that the maximum safe dosage of valproic acid is 60 mg/kg/day. So, we have:
60 mg/kg/day × 80 kg = 4800 mg/day
So, the maximum safe dosage for a client who weighs 176 pounds is4800 mg/day.
Choice C rationale:
3520 mg/day is not the correct answer. It does not accurately calculate the maximum safe dosage based on the client's weight.
Choice D rationale:
6171 mg/day is not the correct answer. It is significantly higher than the correct calculation and would exceed the maximum safe dosage for the client's weight.
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