A client with severe nausea has a one time order for ondansetron (Zofran) 8 mg IVPB to be administered over 15 minutes. The medication is diluted in 50 mL of D5W. The tubing drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute should be given?
The Correct Answer is ["50"]
To calculate the drops per minute for the ondansetron infusion, we need to use the formula:
drops per minute = (volume in mL x drop factor) / time in minutes
In this case, the volume is 50 mL, the drop factor is 15 gtt/mL, and the time is 15 minutes. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
drops per minute = (50 x 15) / 15
drops per minute = 750 / 15
drops per minute = 50
Therefore, the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver 50 drops per minute of ondansetron to the client with severe nausea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. International normalized ratio (INR):
INR is a test used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly drugs like warfarin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot. It's not directly related to assessing heart failure but is more associated with monitoring anticoagulation status.
B. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP):
BNP is a peptide released by the heart in response to increased pressure and volume in the heart, often seen in heart failure. Elevated BNP levels can indicate the presence of heart failure. It's a useful diagnostic marker for heart failure.
C. Troponin:
Troponin is a protein released into the blood when there is damage to the heart muscle, usually during a heart attack. It is not specific to heart failure but is commonly used to diagnose myocardial infarction (heart attack).
D. Creatinine:
Creatinine is a waste product that comes from the normal wear and tear on muscles. While elevated creatinine levels can be seen in conditions affecting kidney function, it's not a direct marker for assessing heart failure. However, kidney function is often evaluated in conjunction with heart failure assessments.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. To ensure long-term prevention of asthma exacerbations:
This statement is not accurate. Prednisone is typically not used for long-term prevention of asthma exacerbations. It is more commonly prescribed for short-term use during acute exacerbations to quickly reduce inflammation and improve symptoms.
B. To gain control of inadequately controlled, persistent asthma:
This is the most accurate explanation. Prednisone is often prescribed to gain control over inadequately controlled, persistent asthma by providing anti-inflammatory effects and helping to manage symptoms during acute episodes.
C. To cure any systemic infection underlying asthma attacks:
Prednisone is not used to cure infections. While it can have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects, its primary role in asthma is to reduce airway inflammation and control symptoms, not to treat underlying infections.
D. To prevent recurrent pulmonary infections:
Prednisone is not typically prescribed for the prevention of infections. Its use in asthma is more focused on managing inflammation and symptoms during acute exacerbations rather than preventing infections.
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