A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the ﬂoor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Pre-Renal

Super-secret double renal failure

Post-Renal

Intra-Renal

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Pre-Renal failure is caused by factors external to the kidneys, typically involving reduced blood ﬂow or hydration aﬀecting kidney function. Gentamicin does not typically cause this type of failure.
Choice B reason : 'Super-secret double renal failure' is not a medically recognized type of renal failure.
Choice C reason : Post-Renal failure is due to obstruction of urine ﬂow from the kidneys, which is not typically associated with Gentamicin use.
Choice D reason : Intra-Renal failure, also known as intrinsic renal failure, is caused by direct damage to the kidneys themselves. Gentamicin can cause acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic eﬀects, leading to Intra-Renal failure.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: An RBC count of 4,500,000/mL is within the normal range and would not typically cause symptoms of anemia.

Choice B reason: Normal RBC indices do not indicate anemia and would not explain the symptoms.

Choice C reason: A hemoglobin level of 8.2 g/dL is below the normal range and would be consistent with symptoms of anemia such as fatigue and palpitations.

Choice D reason: A hematocrit of 38% is within the normal range for adult males and would not typically be associated with anemia symptoms.

A. Lactated Ringer's solution B. 0.45% sodium chloride (0.45% NaCl) C. 10% dextrose in water (D10W) D. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's solution (D5LR)

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Lactated Ringer's solution does not provide the necessary glucose and may not be compatible with TPN.

Choice B reason: 0.45% sodium chloride (0.45% NaCl) is a hypotonic solution and does not provide adequate calories for a patient on TPN.

Choice C reason: 10% dextrose in water (D10W) is the appropriate choice as it provides a source of calories and prevents hypoglycemia until the next TPN bag is available.

Choice D reason: 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's solution (D5LR) provides less dextrose than D10W and may not prevent hypoglycemia as eﬀectively.

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A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the ﬂoor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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