A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) is admitted to the hospital for uncontrolled DM. Insulin therapy is initiated with an initial dose Isophane suspension insulin at 0800. At 1600, the client reports having diaphoresis, rapid heartbeat, and feeling shaky. Which should the nurse do first?

Assess the client's oxygen saturation level.

Determine the client's current glucose level

Give the client one-half cup of fruit juice.

Give the client skim milk and crackers.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   While oxygen saturation is important, it's not the priority in this situation. The client's symptoms strongly suggest hypoglycemia.
B.   The client's symptoms of diaphoresis, rapid heartbeat, and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia. Therefore, the first action should be to confirm this diagnosis by checking the blood glucose level.
C.   Administering glucose before confirming hypoglycemia can be dangerous. If the client is hyperglycemic, giving them sugar will worsen their condition.
D.   Providing food without confirming hypoglycemia is not appropriate.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

A. This is important to prevent injury but is not the priority at this time.
B. This is important for monitoring the seizure progression and for providing information to the healthcare provider. However, it should be done while simultaneously performing the more critical interventions of ventilation and oxygenation.
C. This is the highest priority as the client is experiencing respiratory failure with a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute. Providing artificial ventilation is crucial to oxygenate the patient.
D. This is not necessary at this point and may not be feasible during the emergency situation.
E. While not as immediate as BVM ventilation, increasing oxygen delivery is essential to improve oxygenation levels.
F. Begin chest compressions: Chest compressions are indicated for cardiac arrest, not respiratory failure.

Correct Answer is ["31"]

Explanation

Total volume in mL x Drop factor) / Total time in minutes.

For the vancomycin infusion, the total volume is 250 mL, the drop factor is 15 gtt/mL, and the total time is 120 minutes (2 hours).

The calculation is as follows: (250 mL x 15 gtt/mL) / 120 minutes = 31.25 gtt/min.

After rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should regulate the infusion to 31 gtt/min.

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A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) is admitted to the hospital for uncontrolled DM. Insulin therapy is initiated with an initial dose Isophane suspension insulin at 0800. At 1600, the client reports having diaphoresis, rapid heartbeat, and feeling shaky. Which should the nurse do first?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exhibits The nurse identifies that the client is having a tonic clonic seizure. The oxygen saturation is 40% and the respiratory rate is 4 breaths/minute. The nurse calls for help and 2 other nurses enter the room. Which 3 interventions should be performed first?

Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

A client is receiving a secondary infusion of vancomycin 1,500 mg in 250 ml to be infused over two hours. The IV administration set delivers 15 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse regulate the Infusion? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

Correct Answer is ["31"]

Explanation

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