A daily dose of aspirin 325 mg PO is most beneficial for an adult client with which medical diagnosis?

Gout.

Sepsis.

Myocardial infarction.

Rheumatoid arthritis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Gout: Aspirin is not typically used for treating gout. Gout is commonly treated with medications like allopurinol or colchicine, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are used selectively.
B. Sepsis: Aspirin is not a primary treatment for sepsis. Sepsis is usually treated with antibiotics, fluid resuscitation, and supportive care.
C. Myocardial infarction: Aspirin is beneficial for preventing further myocardial infarctions (heart attacks) in patients with a history of cardiovascular events or at high risk. It works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of blood clot formation that can lead to heart attacks.
D. Rheumatoid arthritis: Although aspirin can be used for symptomatic relief in rheumatoid arthritis due to its anti-inflammatory properties, it is not the primary treatment. Other medications, such as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), are typically used.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Withhold the medication until the client’s breakfast tray is available on the unit: Withholding the medication until food is available is not necessary, as risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure proper absorption. Food can interfere with the medication's effectiveness.
B. Consult with a pharmacist about scheduling the dose one hour after the client eats: This option is not suitable as risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, and delaying the dose until after eating would compromise the medication's effectiveness.
C. Instruct the client that it is necessary to take nothing but water with the medication: Risedronate must be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes afterward. Milk or other beverages can interfere with the absorption of risedronate.
D. Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to bring the client a glass of low-fat milk: This is not appropriate, as risedronate should be taken with water only to ensure proper absorption. Milk can reduce the effectiveness of the medication.

A. Chronotropic effect. B. Diuresis C. Vasodilation. D. Sympatholytic action.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.

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A daily dose of aspirin 325 mg PO is most beneficial for an adult client with which medical diagnosis?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse administers risedronate to a client with osteoporosis at 0700. The client asks for a glass of milk to drink with the medication. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump postoperatively. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to administer a prescribed PRN dose of naloxone?

Prior to administration of the initial dose of the gastrointestinal (GI) agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the patient?

When preparing to apply a scheduled fentanyl transdermal patch, the nurse notes that the previously applied patch is intact on the client's upper back and the client denies pain. Which action should the nurse take?

The healthcare provider prescribes the anticoagulant heparin for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Before initiating the medication, the nurse should ensure that which drug is readily available in case of heparin overdose?

Levothyroxine sodium is prescribed for a client with hypothyroidism. The nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom because it indicates that the client is taking too much levothyroxine sodium.

Before administering the initial dose of sumatriptan succinate to a client with a migraine headache, it is most important to determine if the client's history includes which problem?

A client receives a prescription for methotrexate. Which information provided by the client requires additional instruction by the nurse?

The nurse is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education packet about simvastatin?