A female client with asthma arrives at the clinic with severe seasonal allergy congestion. On review of the client's current medication list, the practical nurse (PN) notices the client is taking tiotropium bromide and albuterol inhalation for asthma, as well as oral contraceptive ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone. The client receives new prescriptions for hydrocortisone and pseudoephedrine to treat the allergy symptoms. Which medication(s) should the PN reinforce as having the potential to increase the client's blood pressure?
Hydrocortisone.
Tiotropium bromide.
Ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone.
Pseudoephedrine.
Albuterol sulfate.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Hydrocortisone is a corticosteroid that can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure in some individuals. It is important for the PN to monitor the client's blood pressure and educate them about this potential side effect.
Choice B reason: Tiotropium bromide is a bronchodilator used to manage asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). While it is not commonly associated with increasing blood pressure, the PN should still be aware of any potential side effects and monitor the client's blood pressure.
Choice C reason: Ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone is a combination oral contraceptive that contains estrogen and progestin. Estrogen can cause blood vessels to constrict, leading to an increase in blood pressure. The PN should educate the client about this potential side effect and monitor their blood pressure regularly.
Choice D reason: Pseudoephedrine is a decongestant that can cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure. It is important for the PN to inform the client about this potential side effect and monitor their blood pressure closely.
Choice E reason: Albuterol sulfate is a bronchodilator used to relieve asthma symptoms. While it can cause some cardiovascular side effects, such as increased heart rate, it is not typically associated with a significant increase in blood pressure. The PN should still monitor the client's blood pressure and be aware of any potential side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This describes an electroencephalogram (EEG), not an ECG. An EEG detects and maps electrical activity in areas of the brain, which is useful for diagnosing conditions such as epilepsy and other brain disorders.
Choice B reason: This describes a computed tomography (CT) scan. A CT scan uses X-rays and a computer to produce detailed images of internal organs and structures. It is not related to the electrical activity of the heart.
Choice C reason: This describes an electromyography (EMG) test or an auditory brainstem response (ABR) test. EMG records electrical activity in muscles, while ABR measures eye and muscle responses to sounds to evaluate the auditory pathways in the brainstem. Neither of these tests is related to recording heart function.
Choice D reason: A 12-lead ECG graphs the electrical impulses generated by the heart as it beats. This test helps evaluate the heart's rhythm, detect any abnormalities, and diagnose various heart conditions such as arrhythmias, myocardial infarctions, and other cardiac issues. By capturing the electrical activity from different angles, the ECG provides a comprehensive picture of the heart's functioning.
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Suction equipment is essential for a client who has undergone fixation of a mandible fracture. Due to the nature of the surgery and the presence of wiring, the client may have difficulty managing oral secretions. Suction equipment ensures that any secretions can be promptly and effectively removed, preventing aspiration and maintaining a clear airway. This equipment is vital for managing the client's immediate postoperative needs and ensuring their safety.
Choice B reason: A crash cart, while critical in emergency situations, is not specifically required to be present in the client's room following mandible fracture fixation. Crash carts are typically available on the unit and can be quickly brought to the room if needed. The practical nurse should be familiar with the location of the crash cart and how to access it, but it does not need to be permanently stationed in the client's room.
Choice C reason: A non-rebreather mask is used to deliver high concentrations of oxygen to clients experiencing severe respiratory distress or hypoxemia. While it is an important piece of equipment for respiratory emergencies, it is not specifically necessary to have in the room of a client with a mandible fracture fixation. The priority is to have suction equipment and wire cutters immediately available, while other oxygen delivery devices can be accessed as needed.
Choice D reason: A nasogastric tube is used for decompression of the stomach or for feeding clients who are unable to take oral nutrition. It is not specifically required for a client with a mandible fracture fixation unless there are additional complications or indications for its use. The practical nurse should focus on equipment directly related to managing the fixation and maintaining the client's airway.
Choice E reason: Wire cutters are a critical item to have in the room of a client with a mandible fracture fixation. In the event of an emergency, such as vomiting or respiratory distress, the wires securing the mandible may need to be quickly cut to ensure the client's airway is not compromised. Having wire cutters immediately available ensures that the practical nurse can respond swiftly and effectively to any urgent situations, maintaining the client's safety and airway patency.
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