A homeless male client with a history of alcohol abuse had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) 10 years ago that resulted in left hemiparesis. Today he is reporting pain in his left leg, is afebrile, has 4+ pitting edema in the lower left leg, and minimal swelling of the right leg. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Complete a mental status exam.
Obtain a blood alcohol level.
Inspect legs for infection or trauma.
Inquire about dietary salt intake.
The Correct Answer is C
A. The client’s current symptoms—pain, significant leg edema, and swelling—are more pressing and suggest a need to evaluate the physical cause of these symptoms rather than focusing immediately on mental status.
B. Obtaining a blood alcohol level might be relevant if there is a suspicion that recent alcohol use is contributing to the client’s condition or affecting his overall health. However, the primary concern in this case is the significant edema and pain in the left leg.
C. This is the most pertinent action to take first. The client’s symptoms of severe edema and pain in one leg, along with a history of CVA and alcohol abuse, raise concerns about possible causes such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), infection, or trauma. Inspecting the legs for signs of infection or trauma (bruising, cuts) is crucial to determine the underlying cause of the symptoms and guide appropriate treatment.
D. While excessive salt intake can contribute to fluid retention and edema, the degree of swelling described (4+ pitting edema) and the localized nature of the problem in the left leg make it less likely that dietary salt alone is the cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An absent or sluggish deep tendon reflex typically indicates a lower motor neuron lesion, which affects the peripheral nerves or spinal cord segments involved in reflex arc processing. Lower motor neuron lesions often result in reduced or absent reflexes, not brisk responses.
B. Flaccid paralysis is characterized by a lack of muscle tone and reflexes, which is usually associated with lower motor neuron damage. A brisk 4+ reflex response does not indicate flaccid paralysis but rather heightened reflex activity.
C. A brisk 4+ response indicates hyperactivity of the deep tendon reflexes, which is consistent with an upper motor neuron disorder. Upper motor neuron lesions, such as those resulting from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), often lead to increased reflex responses due to disruption in the normal inhibitory signals from the brain.
D. A normal reflex response is typically classified as 2+ on a scale of 0 to 4, where 2+ is considered average or expected. A 4+ response indicates hyperactivity, which is not normal but rather indicates increased reflexes, usually associated with upper motor neuron issues.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This question assesses a client's recent memory, not their judgment.
B. This question assesses a client's knowledge and understanding of animals, not their judgment.
C. This question evaluates a client's judgment by assessing their ability to make sound decisions based on hypothetical situations. It requires the client to consider potential consequences and make a logical inference.
D. This question assesses a client's financial knowledge and decision-making skills, but it doesn't directly evaluate their judgment in a hypothetical situation.
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