A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer. The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

"I can give you information about respite care if you are interested."

"I am sure you're doing a great job taking care of your mother."

"You should consider taking a sleeping pill before bed each night."

"It is always difficult caring for someone who is terminally ill."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Offering information about respite care is a helpful and practical response. Respite care provides temporary relief for caregivers, allowing them to rest and recharge.
B.   While it's important to acknowledge the son's efforts, this statement doesn't address the need for rest or offer solutions.
C.   Suggesting sleeping pills without further assessment is not appropriate and may not address the root cause of the son's sleep deprivation.
D.   While caring for a terminally ill person is challenging, this statement does not offer the support or solution the son needs.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Maternal hypoglycemia typically does not cause fetal bradycardia.
B. Chorioamnionitis could lead to fetal tachycardia, not bradycardia.
C. Maternal fever may cause fetal tachycardia, not bradycardia.
D. Fetal anemia can lead to fetal bradycardia as the fetus struggles to maintain adequate oxygenation.

A. Sepsis B. Placenta previa C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Preeclampsia E. Preterm prelabor rupture of membranes (PROM) F. Seizures

Correct Answer is ["A","E"]

Explanation

A. Sepsis
Sepsis is a systemic infection that can occur during pregnancy, particularly if there is an infection such as chorioamnionitis (infection of the amniotic sac) or endometritis (infection of the uterine lining). The client's fever (38.4°C) could be indicative of infection, which is a risk factor for sepsis.
B. Placenta Previa
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, covering the cervix. This can cause vaginal bleeding and may lead to complications during labor. However, this is not related to the client's current symptoms.
C. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
DIC is a serious condition that can occur due to pregnancy complications like abruptio placentae, infection, or severe preeclampsia. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate bleeding, bruising, or other signs of DIC. The client's blood pressure (130/78) is normal, and there are no indications of placental abruption.
D. Preeclampsia
Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria. The client’s blood pressure (130/78) is normal, and there are no signs of significant swelling or other symptoms commonly associated with preeclampsia.
E. Preterm Premature Rupture of Membranes (PPROM)
PPROM is the rupture of the membranes (amniotic sac) before 37 weeks gestation, leading to the risk of infection, preterm labor, and other complications. While the client’s membranes are intact at this time, preterm labor at 33 weeks is a risk factor for PPROM.
F. Seizures
Seizures in pregnancy are most commonly seen in conditions like eclampsia, which is a complication of preeclampsia. However, the client does not have the signs of preeclampsia (high blood pressure, proteinuria, edema) that typically lead to eclampsia.

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A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer. The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","E"]

Explanation

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