A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Discuss with the client his inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
Offer fluids every 2 hr.
Document the client’s behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
Assess the client’s behavior once every hour.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C: Document the client’s behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
Choice A rationale:
Discussing with the client his inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion is important, but it’s not the most appropriate action. The priority is to ensure the safety of the client and others, which can be achieved by documenting the client’s behavior prior to seclusion.
Choice B rationale:
Offering fluids every 2 hours is a good practice to keep the client hydrated, especially if they are agitated or physically active. However, this is not the most appropriate action in this context.
Choice C rationale:
Documenting the client’s behavior prior to being placed in seclusion is the most appropriate action. This documentation is crucial for legal and ethical reasons, and it helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the intervention.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing the client’s behavior once every hour is important to monitor the client’s condition and response to seclusion. However, this is not the most appropriate action in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: A client who is taking warfarin and has an INR of 1.8.
Choice A rationale:
A Mantoux test with an induration after 48 hours can be a normal reaction, especially if the induration is within the expected size range for a positive result, depending on the individual’s risk factors and history. It does not necessarily require follow-up care unless the induration is significantly large or there are other concerning symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not typically require follow-up care for the sodium phosphate intake itself. Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel prep medication to clear the intestines prior to the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), so a client taking bumetanide with this potassium level would not typically require follow-up care for the potassium level alone.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care because the therapeutic range for warfarin is typically between 2.0 and 3.0 for most indications. An INR of 1.8 may indicate that the blood is not “thin” enough, increasing the risk of thrombotic events, and the warfarin dose may need adjustment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dose, route, and frequency. A complete prescription should also include the client’s name, date, time, signature of the prescriber, and any special instructions.
Choice A is wrong because it does not specify the dose of cimetidine.
PO twice daily is not enough information to administer the medication safely. Choice B is wrong because it does not specify the frequency of tetracycline.
200 mg PO is not enough information to administer the medication safely. Choice C is wrong because it does not specify the route of epoetin alfa.
150 units/kg three times weekly is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Normal ranges for digoxin are 0.5 to 2 ng/mL for heart failure and 0.8 to 2 ng/mL for atrial fibrillation.
Normal ranges for cimetidine are 50 to 150 ng/mL. Normal ranges for tetracycline are 1 to 10 mcg/mL.
Normal ranges for epoetin alfa are not applicable as it is a synthetic hormone that stimulates red blood cell production.
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