A laboring woman with Type 1 diabetes is on an IV insulin drip, and the nurse is monitoring her glucose levels hourly. The woman's partner asks why the glucose needs to remain between 70-110 mg/dL. The nurse's response is based on which of the following information?

Maintaining euglycemia in labor reduces the need for insulin postpartum.

A blood glucose level 110 puts the client at risk for infection in labor.

More insulin will be available for fetal use via placental transfer.

An elevated blood glucose in labor increases the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Maintaining euglycemia in labor reduces the need for insulin postpartum. While insulin requirements typically decrease after delivery due to the loss of placental hormones that cause insulin resistance, the primary reason for tight glucose control during labor is to prevent neonatal complications rather than reducing postpartum insulin needs.

B. A blood glucose level above 110 puts the client at risk for infection in labor. Poorly controlled diabetes can increase infection risk over time, but transient hyperglycemia in labor is not a direct cause of infection. The focus of glucose management during labor is to prevent neonatal hypoglycemia rather than maternal infection.

C. More insulin will be available for fetal use via placental transfer. Insulin does not cross the placenta, so maternal insulin therapy does not provide insulin to the fetus. However, maternal hyperglycemia leads to increased fetal insulin production, which can cause neonatal hypoglycemia after birth.

D. An elevated blood glucose in labor increases the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia. Maternal hyperglycemia causes the fetus to produce excessive insulin in utero. After birth, when the maternal glucose supply is suddenly cut off, the infant’s high insulin levels can cause a rapid drop in blood glucose, leading to neonatal hypoglycemia, which can be dangerous if not managed properly.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Diuresis. Increased urine output is a positive sign in a postpartum woman with preeclampsia, indicating that fluid shifts are occurring and the kidneys are functioning well. Magnesium sulfate does not cause fluid retention, and diuresis is not a major concern at this time.

B. Hypotension. While magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, leading to a mild decrease in blood pressure, severe hypotension is not the primary concern. The main hemodynamic concern postpartum is ensuring adequate uterine tone and preventing hemorrhage.

C. Increased risk for seizures. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent eclampsia-related seizures, and its continued administration postpartum helps reduce seizure risk. The risk of seizures decreases after delivery, but stopping the infusion too early could increase the risk, making this a secondary rather than primary concern.

D. Excessive uterine bleeding. Magnesium sulfate relaxes smooth muscle, including the uterus, which can lead to uterine atony and increased postpartum hemorrhage risk. This is a critical concern in the immediate postpartum period, as uterine atony can result in life-threatening blood loss requiring urgent intervention.

A. "My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now." B. The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together" C. I passed some thick pink mucus where I urinated this morning" D. "My bag of waters just broke’

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Increased urinary frequency and the baby "dropping" indicate lightening, which occurs in the weeks before labor begins. While this is a sign that labor is approaching, it does not confirm true labor.
B. True labor is characterized by contractions that progressively become stronger, closer together, and more regular, leading to cervical dilation and effacement. This distinguishes it from false labor, where contractions are irregular and do not cause cervical changes.
C. Passing thick pink mucus, known as the bloody show, is a sign that labor may begin soon, but it does not confirm that the woman is in active labor. Cervical changes must be assessed to determine true labor.
D. The rupture of membranes, or "water breaking," can occur before or during labor, but it does not necessarily indicate the onset of true labor. Cervical dilation and regular contractions are required to confirm active labor.

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A laboring woman with Type 1 diabetes is on an IV insulin drip, and the nurse is monitoring her glucose levels hourly. The woman's partner asks why the glucose needs to remain between 70-110 mg/dL. The nurse's response is based on which of the following information?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A woman with preeclampsia gave birth vaginally 1 hour ago. She is still receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion at 1 gm/hr. A major concern regarding the administration of magnesium sulfate at this time would be:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse recognizes that a woman is in true labor when she states…., and finds that her cervix has dilated and effaced on examination.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client who is 32 weeks pregnant calls the clinic complaining of an increase in vaginal discharge, pelvic pressure, and low back and abdominal pain. Based on this information, what action will the nurse take?

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A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

To assist with an induction of labor which of these medications can be used? Select all that apply

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With regard to systemic analgesics administered during labor, nurses should be aware that:

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