A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?
The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90
The patient states that her headache is gone
The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds
The patient has had no seizures since delivery
The Correct Answer is A
A. The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure in conditions such as eclampsia. A reduction in blood pressure indicates that the medication is achieving its intended effect of controlling hypertension, reducing the risk of complications like stroke or organ damage.
B. The patient states that her headache is gone. While headaches are a symptom of severe hypertension, their resolution does not directly confirm the effectiveness of hydralazine. Other factors, such as pain relief or improved postpartum recovery, could contribute to headache relief.
C. The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds. Postpartum weight loss is expected due to fluid shifts and loss of pregnancy-related fluids, but it is not a direct measure of hydralazine’s effectiveness. The medication does not act as a diuretic or weight-loss agent.
D. The patient has had no seizures since delivery. While hydralazine helps lower blood pressure, preventing seizures in eclamptic patients is primarily managed with magnesium sulfate, not hydralazine. The absence of seizures is important but does not indicate the specific effectiveness of this antihypertensive medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Consuming more calories covers the insulin secreted by the fetus. The fetus does not secrete insulin to regulate maternal glucose levels. Instead, the maternal pancreas produces insulin in response to blood sugar levels, but in diabetes, maternal insulin resistance leads to excess glucose being transferred to the fetus.
B. Fetal weight gain increases as a result of the common response of maternal overeating. While some women with diabetes may have increased caloric intake, this is not the primary reason for fetal macrosomia (large birth weight). The major factor is maternal hyperglycemia leading to excess fetal insulin production and fat deposition.
C. Extra circulating glucose causes the fetus to acquire fatty deposits. In diabetic pregnancies, excess maternal glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperinsulinemia. The increased insulin promotes fat storage and excessive fetal growth, leading to macrosomia, which increases the risk of birth complications such as shoulder dystocia.
D. Taking exogenous insulin stimulates fetal growth. Insulin does not cross the placenta, so maternal insulin therapy does not directly affect fetal growth. Instead, fetal macrosomia results from prolonged exposure to maternal hyperglycemia, which causes the fetus to produce excessive insulin and store extra fat.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Insert an internal fetal scalp electrode monitor. There is no indication for an internal fetal monitor, as the external monitoring shows a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern with moderate variability and no decelerations. Internal monitoring is typically used when external monitoring is inadequate or when fetal distress is suspected.
B. Contact the doctor at once and reposition the patient. There is no fetal distress or abnormal contraction pattern requiring immediate physician intervention. The fetal heart rate is within the normal range (110-160 bpm), and moderate variability indicates adequate oxygenation.
C. Document the finding in the patient's medical record. This is the correct action because the assessment findings indicate a well-oxygenated fetus and a normal labor progression. Contractions every 3-4 minutes lasting 60 seconds are within the expected range for oxytocin augmentation, and no abnormalities are present.
D. Discontinue the IV fluid containing Pitocin (oxytocin). There is no need to stop the oxytocin infusion, as the contraction pattern is appropriate, and there are no signs of uterine tachysystole or fetal distress.
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