A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90

The patient states that her headache is gone

The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds

The patient has had no seizures since delivery

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure in conditions such as eclampsia. A reduction in blood pressure indicates that the medication is achieving its intended effect of controlling hypertension, reducing the risk of complications like stroke or organ damage.

B. The patient states that her headache is gone. While headaches are a symptom of severe hypertension, their resolution does not directly confirm the effectiveness of hydralazine. Other factors, such as pain relief or improved postpartum recovery, could contribute to headache relief.

C. The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds. Postpartum weight loss is expected due to fluid shifts and loss of pregnancy-related fluids, but it is not a direct measure of hydralazine’s effectiveness. The medication does not act as a diuretic or weight-loss agent.

D. The patient has had no seizures since delivery. While hydralazine helps lower blood pressure, preventing seizures in eclamptic patients is primarily managed with magnesium sulfate, not hydralazine. The absence of seizures is important but does not indicate the specific effectiveness of this antihypertensive medication.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Correct coagulation failure by giving platelets. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (amniotic fluid embolism) can cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), but correcting coagulation abnormalities is not the immediate priority. The first intervention should focus on oxygenation and stabilizing the cardiovascular system.

B. Provide emotional support to the woman and her family. While emotional support is important, this is not the priority in a life-threatening emergency. The focus should be on immediate resuscitation efforts to prevent maternal and fetal death.

C. Maintain cardiac output and assess intake & output. Maintaining cardiac output is critical, but this is secondary to oxygenation. The initial response should be administering high-flow oxygen to improve maternal and fetal oxygenation before managing hemodynamic stability.

D. Administer oxygen by tight face mask 8-10L/min. Amniotic fluid embolism causes sudden respiratory distress, hypoxia, and cardiovascular collapse. Immediate high-flow oxygen delivery is the first and most critical intervention to improve oxygenation, support cardiac function, and prevent further complications.

A. Diuresis B. Hypotension C. Increased risk for seizures D. Excessive uterine bleeding.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Diuresis. Increased urine output is a positive sign in a postpartum woman with preeclampsia, indicating that fluid shifts are occurring and the kidneys are functioning well. Magnesium sulfate does not cause fluid retention, and diuresis is not a major concern at this time.

B. Hypotension. While magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, leading to a mild decrease in blood pressure, severe hypotension is not the primary concern. The main hemodynamic concern postpartum is ensuring adequate uterine tone and preventing hemorrhage.

C. Increased risk for seizures. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent eclampsia-related seizures, and its continued administration postpartum helps reduce seizure risk. The risk of seizures decreases after delivery, but stopping the infusion too early could increase the risk, making this a secondary rather than primary concern.

D. Excessive uterine bleeding. Magnesium sulfate relaxes smooth muscle, including the uterus, which can lead to uterine atony and increased postpartum hemorrhage risk. This is a critical concern in the immediate postpartum period, as uterine atony can result in life-threatening blood loss requiring urgent intervention.

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A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

If the nurse suspects a patient has experienced anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (amniotic fluid embolus), which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A woman with preeclampsia gave birth vaginally 1 hour ago. She is still receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion at 1 gm/hr. A major concern regarding the administration of magnesium sulfate at this time would be:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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