A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90

The patient states that her headache is gone

The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds

The patient has had no seizures since delivery

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure in conditions such as eclampsia. A reduction in blood pressure indicates that the medication is achieving its intended effect of controlling hypertension, reducing the risk of complications like stroke or organ damage.

B. The patient states that her headache is gone. While headaches are a symptom of severe hypertension, their resolution does not directly confirm the effectiveness of hydralazine. Other factors, such as pain relief or improved postpartum recovery, could contribute to headache relief.

C. The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds. Postpartum weight loss is expected due to fluid shifts and loss of pregnancy-related fluids, but it is not a direct measure of hydralazine’s effectiveness. The medication does not act as a diuretic or weight-loss agent.

D. The patient has had no seizures since delivery. While hydralazine helps lower blood pressure, preventing seizures in eclamptic patients is primarily managed with magnesium sulfate, not hydralazine. The absence of seizures is important but does not indicate the specific effectiveness of this antihypertensive medication.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm. Cervical changes, including effacement and dilation, are the most definitive signs of preterm labor. Uterine contractions alone do not confirm preterm labor unless they result in cervical dilation, indicating that labor is progressing.

B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 15-30 minutes. Irregular contractions, known as Braxton Hicks contractions, can be common in pregnancy and do not necessarily indicate preterm labor. True preterm labor involves regular contractions that lead to cervical changes.

C. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. The absence of estriol in maternal saliva does not confirm or rule out preterm labor. Salivary estriol testing is not a widely used or reliable diagnostic tool for determining the onset of preterm labor.

D. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretion. Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein found in vaginal secretions between 22-34 weeks of pregnancy and can indicate a risk of preterm labor, but its presence alone does not confirm that labor is actively occurring. A positive fFN test means the patient may be at increased risk for preterm labor, but cervical changes remain the best indicator of actual labor.

A. Oral hypoglycemic medications B. Diet control and exercise C. Inhaled insulin D. Regular insulin injections

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Oral hypoglycemic medications. While some oral hypoglycemic agents, such as metformin or glyburide, are used in gestational diabetes, the first-line treatment is always dietary modification and exercise. Medications are only introduced if blood glucose levels remain uncontrolled with lifestyle changes.

B. Diet control and exercise. The initial treatment for gestational diabetes focuses on controlling blood glucose through dietary adjustments, portion control, and regular physical activity. If lifestyle modifications fail to maintain glucose levels within the target range, insulin or oral medications may be introduced.

C. Inhaled insulin. Inhaled insulin is not commonly used in pregnancy because its safety and efficacy for gestational diabetes have not been well established. Insulin therapy, if needed, is typically administered via subcutaneous injection rather than inhalation.

D. Regular insulin injections. Insulin therapy is considered if diet and exercise alone fail to control blood glucose levels. However, it is not the first-line treatment, as many women can successfully manage gestational diabetes without requiring insulin therapy.

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A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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