A male client reports to the nurse that he took sildenafil for erectile dysfunction but did not achieve an erection. Which of the following considerations should the nurse evaluate to determine possible reasons for the lack of response?
The client's level of sexual stimulation
If taken with a high fat meal, the medication is more effective
The client's recent consumption of caffeine
If client took an additional dose to achieve an erection
The Correct Answer is A
A. The client's level of sexual stimulation
Sildenafil requires sexual stimulation to be effective. It enhances blood flow to the penis but does not automatically cause an erection. The client should be educated that adequate sexual arousal is necessary for the medication to work.
B. If taken with a high-fat meal, the medication is more effective
Taking sildenafil with a high-fat meal can actually delay its absorption and reduce effectiveness. Clients should be advised to take it on an empty stomach or with a light meal for optimal results.
C. The client's recent consumption of caffeine
Caffeine intake does not interfere with sildenafil’s effectiveness. However, excessive caffeine consumption may contribute to vasoconstriction, which could indirectly affect erectile function.
D. If client took an additional dose to achieve an erection
Taking an extra dose of sildenafil is not recommended and can increase the risk of serious side effects such as hypotension, priapism (prolonged erection), and cardiovascular complications. The client should follow prescribed dosing guidelines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A","dropdown-group-3":"A"}
Explanation
Step 1: Identify the Prescribed Volume
The provider prescribed 15 mL of codeine with acetaminophen oral elixir to be taken by mouth once.
Correct choice: 15 mL
Step 2: Calculate the Codeine Dose
The formulary concentration states:
- 2.4 mg/mL of codeine
15mL×2.4mg/mL=36 mg of codeine
Correct choice: 36 mg of codeine
Step 3: Calculate the Acetaminophen Dose
The formulary concentration states:
- 24 mg/mL of acetaminophen
15mL×24mg/mL=360mg of acetaminophen
Correct choice: 360 mg of acetaminophen
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 32-week patient with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate – Magnesium sulfate requires close monitoring for toxicity (e.g., respiratory depression, loss of deep tendon reflexes), making this client inappropriate for a nurse with no OB experience.
B. 9-week client with hyperemesis receiving IV therapy – This client is the most stable and requires routine care, such as IV fluid administration and antiemetics, making them the best assignment for a new nurse without OB experience.
C. 34-week client with no fetal heartbeat – This client requires significant emotional support and possibly induction of labor, making them inappropriate for a nurse unfamiliar with OB care.
D. 38-week client with complete previa – Placenta previa poses a high risk for hemorrhage, and this client requires close monitoring. A new nurse without OB experience would not be the best choice for this assignment.
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