A nurse is assessing a postpartum client for signs of postpartum depression. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of postpartum depression rather than normal postpartum adjustment?
Feeling anxious about the baby's health and well-being, but still able to care for the baby effectively
Experiencing occasional mood swings and irritability while adjusting to the new role of motherhood
Feeling overwhelmed and having difficulty sleeping due to the demands of a newborn
Persistent feelings of sadness, severe fatigue, and loss of interest in activities, including caring for the baby
The Correct Answer is D
A. Feeling anxious about the baby's health and well-being, but still able to care for the baby effectively
Mild anxiety about the baby’s health is a common experience for new mothers and does not necessarily indicate PPD. It becomes concerning if anxiety becomes overwhelming or interferes with daily functioning.
B. Experiencing occasional mood swings and irritability while adjusting to the new role of motherhood
Mood swings and irritability are normal postpartum adjustments, often due to hormonal changes, sleep deprivation, and new responsibilities. These symptoms typically resolve within a few weeks.
C. Feeling overwhelmed and having difficulty sleeping due to the demands of a newborn
Feeling overwhelmed and sleep disturbances are common in the postpartum period due to frequent infant care needs. However, severe or persistent sleep disturbances, especially with loss of interest in daily activities, may indicate PPD.
D. Persistent feelings of sadness, severe fatigue, and loss of interest in activities, including caring for the baby
Postpartum depression is characterized by prolonged sadness, extreme fatigue, withdrawal, and difficulty bonding with the baby. These symptoms extend beyond normal postpartum blues (which typically resolve within two weeks) and require medical intervention, including therapy and possibly medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 32-week patient with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate – Magnesium sulfate requires close monitoring for toxicity (e.g., respiratory depression, loss of deep tendon reflexes), making this client inappropriate for a nurse with no OB experience.
B. 9-week client with hyperemesis receiving IV therapy – This client is the most stable and requires routine care, such as IV fluid administration and antiemetics, making them the best assignment for a new nurse without OB experience.
C. 34-week client with no fetal heartbeat – This client requires significant emotional support and possibly induction of labor, making them inappropriate for a nurse unfamiliar with OB care.
D. 38-week client with complete previa – Placenta previa poses a high risk for hemorrhage, and this client requires close monitoring. A new nurse without OB experience would not be the best choice for this assignment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Retained placental fragments
This is incorrect because retained placental fragments are more commonly associated with prolonged third-stage labor or incomplete placental expulsion, rather than fetal macrosomia.
B. Uterine atony
This is correct because a large baby (macrosomia) causes overdistension of the uterus, increasing the risk of uterine atony (failure of the uterus to contract effectively). This can lead to postpartum hemorrhage.
C. Puerperal infection
This is incorrect because puerperal infection is usually related to prolonged rupture of membranes, poor hygiene, or invasive procedures, rather than fetal size alone.
D. Thrombophlebitis
While pregnancy increases the risk of clot formation, the most immediate concern for this client is uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage.
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