G1P1, 37 weeks' gestation patient with a scheduled nonstress test (NST)

Complete the following sentence using the drop-down options.

The nurse's greatest concern is the client's risk of developing
i_
and related to
ii__
and
_iii____
.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"C"}

Correct answers: The nurse's greatest concern is the client's risk of developing HELLP syndrome and related to thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes.

Rationale:

I. HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver Enzymes, and Low Platelets) is a severe form of preeclampsia that can lead to life-threatening complications.

Ii. Thrombocytopenia (low platelets) (120,000) increases the risk of bleeding.

Iii. Elevated liver enzymes (ALT 75, AST 78, Alkaline Phosphatase 184) suggest liver involvement, which is a hallmark of HELLP syndrome.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion The patient is not receiving an oxytocin infusion; therefore, discontinuing it is not applicable. Oxytocin is typically stopped in cases of uterine tachysystole or fetal distress, neither of which is present in this scenario. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is within normal range, and no contractions have been noted.

B. Notify the health care provider: The nurse should notify the healthcare provider because the patient is exhibiting severe hypertension (168/100 mmHg), minimal fetal heart rate variability, and laboratory findings consistent with preeclampsia with severe features (elevated liver enzymes, thrombocytopenia, and proteinuria).

C. Assist the patient onto her left side: Repositioning the patient onto her left side can improve uteroplacental blood flow by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, thereby enhancing oxygen delivery to the fetus.

D. Administer oxygen at 10L/min via nonrebreather face mask : Oxygen therapy is typically reserved for cases of acute fetal distress. In this case, the FHR is within the normal range, and there are no signs of immediate fetal compromise requiring supplemental oxygen.

E. Stop the magnesium sulfate: Magnesium sulfate is administered to prevent seizures in preeclampsia with severe features and should not be stopped unless there are signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes (DTRs), respiratory depression, or altered mental status.

F. Assist with a vaginal exam for cord prolapse: A vaginal examination for cord prolapse is only indicated when there is a sudden, severe fetal bradycardia or variable decelerations, particularly following rupture of membranes.

A. The client's level of sexual stimulation B. If taken with a high fat meal, the medication is more effective C. The client's recent consumption of caffeine D. If client took an additional dose to achieve an erection

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The client's level of sexual stimulation
Sildenafil requires sexual stimulation to be effective. It enhances blood flow to the penis but does not automatically cause an erection. The client should be educated that adequate sexual arousal is necessary for the medication to work.

B. If taken with a high-fat meal, the medication is more effective
Taking sildenafil with a high-fat meal can actually delay its absorption and reduce effectiveness. Clients should be advised to take it on an empty stomach or with a light meal for optimal results.

C. The client's recent consumption of caffeine
Caffeine intake does not interfere with sildenafil’s effectiveness. However, excessive caffeine consumption may contribute to vasoconstriction, which could indirectly affect erectile function.

D. If client took an additional dose to achieve an erection
Taking an extra dose of sildenafil is not recommended and can increase the risk of serious side effects such as hypotension, priapism (prolonged erection), and cardiovascular complications. The client should follow prescribed dosing guidelines.

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G1P1, 37 weeks' gestation patient with a scheduled nonstress test (NST) Complete the following sentence using the drop-down options. The nurse's greatest concern is the client's risk of developing __i_____ and related to __ii____ and ___iii____.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

G1P1, 37 weeks' gestation patient with a scheduled nonstress test (NST) The nurse will implement the following interventions based on the fetal heart rate.(Select All that Apply.)

Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

A male client reports to the nurse that he took sildenafil for erectile dysfunction but did not achieve an erection. Which of the following considerations should the nurse evaluate to determine possible reasons for the lack of response?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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G1P1, 37 weeks' gestation patient with a scheduled nonstress test (NST)

Complete the following sentence using the drop-down options.

The nurse's greatest concern is the client's risk of developing
i_
and related to
ii__
and
_iii____
.