A male client reports to the on-call clinic nurse that he took two tablets of 10 mg lisinopril by mouth two hours ago and his skin now feels flushed. He reports a history of stable angina, but denies experiencing any chest pain at the moment or recently. Which action should the nurse take?
Instruct the client to increase his intake of oral fluids until the skin flushing is relieved.
Advise the client to place one nitroglycerin tablet under his tongue as a precaution.
Tell the client to have someone bring him to an emergency department immediately.
Reassure the client that facial flushing is a common side effect of the medication.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: Increasing oral fluids may help with hydration, but it will not reduce skin flushing caused by lisinopril. Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE. inhibitor that dilates blood vessels and lowers blood pressure. Flushing occurs due to increased blood flow to the skin.
Choice B: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscle in blood vessels and reduces chest pain caused by angina. It is not indicated for skin flushing caused by lisinopril. Moreover, nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure further and cause hypotension, headache, dizziness, and fainting.
Choice C: Going to an emergency department is not necessary for skin flushing caused by lisinopril. Flushing is not a sign of an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, which would require immediate medical attention. Flushing is also not a symptom of a heart attack or stroke, which would present with other signs such as chest pain, shortness of breath, arm numbness, or slurred speech.
Choice D: Reassuring the client that facial flushing is a common side effect of lisinopril is the best action for the nurse to take. Flushing is not harmful or dangerous, and it usually subsides within a few hours. The nurse should explain the mechanism of action of lisinopril and its benefits for lowering blood pressure and preventing angina. The nurse should also advise the client to monitor his blood pressure regularly and report any signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C is correct because providing supplemental oxygen is the first action that the nurse should take for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolus. A pulmonary embolus is a life-threatening condition that occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks the blood flow, causing hypoxia and respiratory distress. The nurse should administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygenation and prevent further complications.
Choice A is incorrect because notifying the healthcare provider is not the first action that the nurse should take for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolus. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider after providing supplemental oxygen and assessing the client's vital signs and symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect because preparing a continuous heparin infusion per protocol is not the first action that the nurse should take for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolus. Heparin is an anticoagulant that can prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of recurrence, but it does not dissolve existing clots or improve oxygenation. The nurse should prepare a heparin infusion after obtaining a prescription from the healthcare provider and confirming the diagnosis with diagnostic tests.
Choice D is incorrect because bringing the emergency crash cart to the bedside is not the first action that the nurse should take for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolus. The emergency crash cart contains equipment and medications that can be used in case of cardiac arrest or other emergencies, but it does not address the immediate need of oxygenation. The nurse should bring the emergency crash cart to the bedside after providing supplemental oxygen and assessing the client's condition.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Ask for a consultation with a psychologist. This is not the best intervention, as it does not address the physical aspect of pain management. A psychologist may help the client cope with emotional distress and cognitive-behavioral strategies to reduce pain perception, but it may not be enough to relieve severe pain.
Choice B: Arrange an appointment with a pain specialist. This is the best intervention, as it addresses the physical aspect of pain management. A pain specialist may prescribe appropriate medications, perform interventional procedures, or recommend alternative therapies to relieve severe pain.
Choice C: Contact a hospice nurse for an evaluation. This is not the best intervention, as it does not address the eligibility criteria for hospice care. Hospice care is intended for clients who have a terminal illness with a life expectancy of six months or less, and who have decided to forego curative treatments. Fibromyalgia is not a terminal illness, and hospice care may not be appropriate for this client.
Choice D: Form an interdisciplinary team for evaluation. This is not the best intervention, as it does not address the urgency of pain management. An interdisciplinary team may consist of various healthcare professionals who can provide holistic care for the client, but it may take time to coordinate and implement their services.
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