A male client who is admitted with bipolar disorder, and manic psychosis, is placed in seclusion after unsuccessful attempts to de-escalate him during a sudden mood swing from laughter to jumping and screaming threats while waving a plastic dinner knife.
The client is given haloperidol.
5 mg intramuscularly STAT prior to seclusion.
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement immediately after seclusion?
Release the client as soon as composure is regained.
Observe for extrapyramidal symptoms, such as dystonia.
Secure the room with padded walls and minimal furnishings.
Provide one-on-one observation at all times.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B rationale:
Observing for extrapyramidal symptoms, such as dystonia, is the most important intervention immediately after seclusion because haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication known to have the potential to cause extrapyramidal side effects. Identifying and managing these side effects promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety.
Choice A rationale:
Releasing the client as soon as composure is regained may not be safe if the client is still at risk of harming themselves or others. Monitoring for the resolution of symptoms and stabilization is important before releasing the client.
Choice C rationale:
Securing the room with padded walls and minimal furnishings is not the immediate priority. While seclusion rooms should be safe and comfortable, observing for potential side effects takes precedence.
Choice D rationale:
Providing one-on-one observation at all times is a resource-intensive intervention and may not be necessary for all clients. Observing for extrapyramidal symptoms is more targeted and appropriate in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
No explanation
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Aspirin is not typically contraindicated in a client who has taken sildenafil unless there are specific contraindications or allergies. Aspirin is often used in the management of acute chest pain to help prevent blood clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Heparin is not contraindicated solely because the client has taken sildenafil. Heparin is an anticoagulant commonly used in various clinical settings, including the management of certain cardiac conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Morphine is not necessarily contraindicated based solely on the client's use of sildenafil. Morphine can be used to relieve chest pain in some cases of acute coronary syndrome. However, its use should be carefully evaluated based on the client's overall clinical presentation.
Choice D rationale:
Nitroglycerin should be withheld in this scenario. Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It can potentiate the vasodilatory effects of nitroglycerin, leading to a severe drop in blood pressure. Concomitant use of nitroglycerin and sildenafil is contraindicated due to the risk of significant hypotension, which can be life-threatening.
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