A man calls the nurses’ station stating that his wife, who delivered four days ago, is happy one minute and crying the next. The man says, "She was never like this before the baby was born. What would be the best response by the nurse?

Tell him to ignore the mood swings, as they will go away in a few days.

Reassure him this behavior is normal following birth and is only a concern if it lasts more than two weeks.

Tell him that his wife might need antidepressants and to call the provider.

Advise him the baby unattended with his wife.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Ignoring the mood swings is not an appropriate response because it may be a sign of postpartum mood changes that need to be monitored.

B. Mood swings in the postpartum period are common and often due to hormonal changes. This is normal unless it persists beyond two weeks, at which point it may indicate postpartum depression.

C. Suggesting antidepressants immediately is premature; mood swings are common in the postpartum period, and treatment is not necessary unless they persist or worsen.

D. Advising the husband to leave the wife unattended is unsafe and inappropriate. Ensuring the wife has support during this time is important.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Pitocin is used to induce or augment labor but is not indicated specifically for a GBS-positive patient.

B. Azithromycin is used for treating chlamydia, not for group B streptococcus (GBS).

C. Penicillin G is the recommended treatment for GBS-positive mothers during labor to prevent neonatal infection. It is administered intravenously.

D. Magnesium Sulfate is used for pre-eclampsia or preterm labor, not for GBS prevention.

A. Place the client in a knee chest position. B. Place 8L of 02 by mask, on the patient. C. With your hand, during the vaginal exam, keep the fetal head from compressing the cord. D. Obtain a consent for an immediate C-Section

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While positioning the patient in a knee-chest position may help, the immediate priority is to relieve pressure on the cord.

B. Administering oxygen is important but does not address the primary issue of cord compression.

C. The number one priority in managing a prolapsed cord is to relieve pressure on the cord and prevent fetal hypoxia. The nurse should manually elevate the presenting part of the fetus to reduce cord compression.

D. Obtaining consent for a C-section is important but not the immediate priority in managing a prolapsed cord.

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A man calls the nurses’ station stating that his wife, who delivered four days ago, is happy one minute and crying the next. The man says, "She was never like this before the baby was born. What would be the best response by the nurse?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A G1 PO 39 week gestation patient presents in active labor. She is GBS positive at 36 weeks. What medication does the nurse anticipate giving?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

You do a vaginal examination and you detect a prolapsed cord. Your number one nursing priority would be to:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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