A man calls the nurses’ station stating that his wife, who delivered four days ago, is happy one minute and crying the next. The man says, "She was never like this before the baby was born. What would be the best response by the nurse?

Tell him to ignore the mood swings, as they will go away in a few days.

Reassure him this behavior is normal following birth and is only a concern if it lasts more than two weeks.

Tell him that his wife might need antidepressants and to call the provider.

Advise him the baby unattended with his wife.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Ignoring the mood swings is not an appropriate response because it may be a sign of postpartum mood changes that need to be monitored.

B. Mood swings in the postpartum period are common and often due to hormonal changes. This is normal unless it persists beyond two weeks, at which point it may indicate postpartum depression.

C. Suggesting antidepressants immediately is premature; mood swings are common in the postpartum period, and treatment is not necessary unless they persist or worsen.

D. Advising the husband to leave the wife unattended is unsafe and inappropriate. Ensuring the wife has support during this time is important.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Prenatal care history is important but not as urgent as membrane status and estimated delivery date.

B. Membrane status and estimated delivery date are critical for assessing the stage of labor and planning care.

C. Fasting blood sugar is relevant in diabetic patients but not an immediate priority.

D. Pain level and birth plan are important but secondary to assessing labor progress.

A. Kernicterus B. Physiologic jaundice C. Pathological Jaundice D. Erythroblastosis Fetalis

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Kernicterus is a rare and severe form of jaundice-related brain damage, but it is not the typical type of jaundice diagnosed at 48 hours.

B. Physiologic jaundice is common in newborns and typically appears around 48 hours of life, usually resolving with simple interventions like frequent feedings and phototherapy.

C. Pathological jaundice occurs earlier than 48 hours and is often caused by blood group incompatibilities or other underlying health issues.

D. Erythroblastosis Fetalis is a severe form of jaundice due to Rh incompatibility, typically presenting in the first 24 hours and requiring more intensive treatment.

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A man calls the nurses’ station stating that his wife, who delivered four days ago, is happy one minute and crying the next. The man says, "She was never like this before the baby was born. What would be the best response by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A woman who is gravida 3 para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important initial nursing assessments are:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A newborn is diagnosed with jaundice at 48 hours when the nurse is doing the discharge teaching. The newborn is treated with a biliblanket and frequent feedings. What type of jaundice did the newborn probably have?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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