A man calls the nurses’ station stating that his wife, who delivered four days ago, is happy one minute and crying the next. The man says, "She was never like this before the baby was born. What would be the best response by the nurse?
Tell him to ignore the mood swings, as they will go away in a few days.
Reassure him this behavior is normal following birth and is only a concern if it lasts more than two weeks.
Tell him that his wife might need antidepressants and to call the provider.
Advise him the baby unattended with his wife.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Ignoring the mood swings is not an appropriate response because it may be a sign of postpartum mood changes that need to be monitored.
B. Mood swings in the postpartum period are common and often due to hormonal changes. This is normal unless it persists beyond two weeks, at which point it may indicate postpartum depression.
C. Suggesting antidepressants immediately is premature; mood swings are common in the postpartum period, and treatment is not necessary unless they persist or worsen.
D. Advising the husband to leave the wife unattended is unsafe and inappropriate. Ensuring the wife has support during this time is important.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E","F"]
Explanation
A. The active stage of labor typically begins when cervical dilation is around 4 cm. LC’s dilation of 6 cm suggests that she is already in the active phase, but this is not confirmed based on this vaginal exam alone.
B. LC is not 80% dilated; the figure 6/80/-1 indicates 6 cm dilation, 80% effaced, and -1 station (fetal head is still above the ischial spines).
C. The fetal station of -1 indicates that the presenting part (head) is 1 cm above the pelvic outlet, which is consistent with this description.
D. The presenting part being 1 cm below the ischial spines would indicate a station of +1, which is not described here.
E. The cervix is 80% effaced, meaning it is more than halfway thinned, which is correct.
F. With a dilation of 6 cm, LC is in the active phase of labor, not the latent phase, but the question refers to the latent phase for comparison.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While positioning the patient in a knee-chest position may help, the immediate priority is to relieve pressure on the cord.
B. Administering oxygen is important but does not address the primary issue of cord compression.
C. The number one priority in managing a prolapsed cord is to relieve pressure on the cord and prevent fetal hypoxia. The nurse should manually elevate the presenting part of the fetus to reduce cord compression.
D. Obtaining consent for a C-section is important but not the immediate priority in managing a prolapsed cord.
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