LC's VE (6/80/-1) indicates which of the following (there are 3 correct choices)?
Active stage of labor.
80% dilated
The fetus is minus 1 cm above the pelvic outlet.
The presenting part is 1cm below the ischial spines.
Correct Answer : C,E,F
A. The active stage of labor typically begins when cervical dilation is around 4 cm. LC’s dilation of 6 cm suggests that she is already in the active phase, but this is not confirmed based on this vaginal exam alone.
B. LC is not 80% dilated; the figure 6/80/-1 indicates 6 cm dilation, 80% effaced, and -1 station (fetal head is still above the ischial spines).
C. The fetal station of -1 indicates that the presenting part (head) is 1 cm above the pelvic outlet, which is consistent with this description.
D. The presenting part being 1 cm below the ischial spines would indicate a station of +1, which is not described here.
E. The cervix is 80% effaced, meaning it is more than halfway thinned, which is correct.
F. With a dilation of 6 cm, LC is in the active phase of labor, not the latent phase, but the question refers to the latent phase for comparison.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E","F"]
Explanation
A. The active stage of labor typically begins when cervical dilation is around 4 cm. LC’s dilation of 6 cm suggests that she is already in the active phase, but this is not confirmed based on this vaginal exam alone.
B. LC is not 80% dilated; the figure 6/80/-1 indicates 6 cm dilation, 80% effaced, and -1 station (fetal head is still above the ischial spines).
C. The fetal station of -1 indicates that the presenting part (head) is 1 cm above the pelvic outlet, which is consistent with this description.
D. The presenting part being 1 cm below the ischial spines would indicate a station of +1, which is not described here.
E. The cervix is 80% effaced, meaning it is more than halfway thinned, which is correct.
F. With a dilation of 6 cm, LC is in the active phase of labor, not the latent phase, but the question refers to the latent phase for comparison.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Abdominal girth is not a primary concern for this patient. Monitoring for signs of abdominal distention and changes in the uterus is more relevant for conditions like preeclampsia or uterine rupture.
B. Assessing the amount of bleeding is essential as vaginal bleeding can indicate serious complications like placental abruption or previa.
C. A pelvic exam is not indicated without signs of cervical change or labor. The priority is to assess for active bleeding and fetal well-being.
D. Fetal heart rate patterns are crucial to assess the status of the fetus, particularly with the concern of placental issues.
E. Maternal vital signs are important to monitor to detect signs of shock or bleeding complications that may not be immediately obvious.
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