LC's VE (6/80/-1) indicates which of the following (there are 3 correct choices)?

Exhibits

Active stage of labor.

80% dilated

The fetus is minus 1 cm above the pelvic outlet.

The presenting part is 1cm below the ischial spines.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : C,E,F

A. The active stage of labor typically begins when cervical dilation is around 4 cm. LC’s dilation of 6 cm suggests that she is already in the active phase, but this is not confirmed based on this vaginal exam alone.

B. LC is not 80% dilated; the figure 6/80/-1 indicates 6 cm dilation, 80% effaced, and -1 station (fetal head is still above the ischial spines).

C. The fetal station of -1 indicates that the presenting part (head) is 1 cm above the pelvic outlet, which is consistent with this description.

D. The presenting part being 1 cm below the ischial spines would indicate a station of +1, which is not described here.

E. The cervix is 80% effaced, meaning it is more than halfway thinned, which is correct.

F. With a dilation of 6 cm, LC is in the active phase of labor, not the latent phase, but the question refers to the latent phase for comparison.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Tubal damage from hyperglycemia: Hyperglycemia, often seen in diabetes, can affect reproductive health but is more commonly associated with issues like poor implantation or uterine environment rather than direct tubal damage.

B. Tubal damage from migraine headaches: Migraine headaches do not cause direct tubal damage or infertility. They may impact overall health and stress levels but are not linked to structural damage in the reproductive tract.

C. Tubal damage from fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition causing widespread pain and fatigue but does not directly cause tubal damage.

D. Tubal damage from PID: Pelvic inflammatory disease is a leading cause of infertility due to the inflammation and scarring it can cause in the fallopian tubes, which can block or damage them, preventing fertilization.

Correct Answer is "{\"xRanges\":[53.828125,93.828125],\"yRanges\":[104,144]}"

Explanation

Mongolian blue spots, also known as congenital dermal melanocytosis, are a type of pigmented birthmark. They are flat, blue-gray marks on the skin that typically appear at birth or shortly after. These spots are most commonly found on the buttocks or lower back, but they can also appear on the arms or legs.

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LC's VE (6/80/-1) indicates which of the following (there are 3 correct choices)? Exhibits

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

partner have been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. The client's medical history is significant for diabetes migraine headaches, fibromyalgia, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which reason is most likely causing the client's infertility?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Place cursor where you are most likely to see Mongolian spots?

Correct Answer is "{\"xRanges\":[53.828125,93.828125],\"yRanges\":[104,144]}"

Explanation

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LC's VE (6/80/-1) indicates which of the following (there are 3 correct choices)?

Exhibits