A mother presents to the nurse practitioner with her 14-year-old son for a wellness check and a flu shot. The mother inquires about a sign she saw in the waiting room regarding human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing. She is surprised that adolescents need to be tested for HIV. The NP’s most appropriate response is:
"He might be sexually active and you aren't aware."
"We would never test an adolescent unless they are sexually active."
"The CDC recommends that everyone between the ages of 13 and 64 get tested for HIV at least once."
"Don't worry, it's just routine."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This response could be interpreted as accusatory or judgmental and does not provide educational value.
Choice B reason: Testing recommendations are not solely based on sexual activity; universal testing guidelines exist for adolescents to identify HIV early.
Choice C reason: CDC guidelines recommend routine HIV screening for individuals aged 13–64 at least once, regardless of perceived risk, making this the most accurate and informative response.
Choice D reason: Minimizing the information with a vague reassurance fails to educate the parent and could lead to misunderstanding the purpose of testing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Shenjing Shuairuo is a culture-bound syndrome in Chinese populations characterized by fatigue, somatic complaints, sleep disturbances, and difficulty concentrating in response to stress, which aligns with this patient’s presentation.
Choice B reason: Susto is a Latin American syndrome associated with fright or trauma causing soul loss, often accompanied by somatic symptoms, which is not culturally consistent with this patient.
Choice C reason: Kufungisisa is a Zimbabwean culture-bound syndrome involving excessive thinking leading to somatic complaints, which does not align with the patient’s cultural background.
Choice D reason: Khayal is a Southeast Asian culture-bound syndrome linked to anxiety and somatic symptoms, but it is not typical in Chinese populations.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Aminoglycosides are primarily used for gram-negative infections and severe open fractures (grade II or III) but are not the first-line choice for a mild, grade 1 open fracture.
Choice B reason: Cephalosporins, particularly first-generation cephalosporins like cefazolin, are the standard prophylactic antibiotics for grade 1 open fractures. They cover common pathogens such as Staphylococcus aureus and reduce the risk of post-traumatic osteomyelitis.
Choice C reason: High-dose penicillin is reserved for fractures complicated by anaerobic infections (e.g., contaminated wounds with soil) and is not routinely indicated for simple grade 1 open fractures.
Choice D reason: Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim are not standard prophylaxis for open fractures and are not the first-line treatment due to insufficient coverage of typical pathogens encountered in acute open fractures.
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