A nurse admits a woman who is 38 weeks gestation and has ruptured membranes.
The nurse determines that the amniotic fluid is clear and odorless.
Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is the appropriate first nursing action?
Allow the client to ambulate in the hallway to initiate labor.
Encourage oral fluids and administer an antipyretic medication.
Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.
Check the client's temperature every 2 hours.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Allowing the client to ambulate in the hallway to initiate labor is not the first appropriate action because it does not address the immediate need to monitor the client's temperature. Ambulation can be considered after ensuring there are no signs of infection or other complications.
Choice B rationale
Encouraging oral fluids and administering an antipyretic medication is not the initial priority. While hydration is important, the primary focus should be on monitoring for signs of infection, which can be indicated by changes in temperature.
Choice C rationale
Administering glucocorticoids intramuscularly is typically for promoting fetal lung maturity in cases of preterm labor, not for term pregnancies at 38 weeks. It does not address the immediate need to monitor maternal temperature after membrane rupture.
Choice D rationale
Checking the client's temperature every 2 hours is crucial to monitor for signs of infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which can occur after membrane rupture. Early detection of fever can prevent complications for both mother and baby.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed - The client's blood pressure is elevated, and managing hypertension is crucial to prevent complications.
B. Initiate continuous fetal monitoring - The client is experiencing symptoms that could indicate preeclampsia, and continuous monitoring is essential to assess fetal well-being.
C. Monitor for signs of magnesium toxicity - Given the client's symptoms and lab results, monitoring for magnesium toxicity is important, especially if magnesium sulfate is being used for seizure prophylaxis.
D. Perform a vaginal exam to assess cervical status - This intervention is not a priority at this moment given the client's condition and the need to avoid unnecessary interventions that could cause stress or complications.
E. Assess for signs of placental abruption - Although the client denies vaginal bleeding, it's important to monitor for any signs of placental abruption due to her symptoms and hypertension.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering epinephrine before the procedure is not standard practice to prevent hypotension associated with epidurals. Epinephrine is used in emergency situations to treat severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest, not for preventing epidural-induced hypotension.
Choice B rationale
Positioning the client on her back prior to the procedure is not recommended, as it can exacerbate hypotension due to compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus. This position can decrease venous return to the heart and reduce cardiac output.
Choice C rationale
Having the patient eat a carbohydrate snack prior to the procedure is not a standard intervention to prevent hypotension during an epidural. Dietary intake does not directly prevent the vasodilatory effects of the epidural anesthesia.
Choice D rationale
Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal saline IV fluid before the procedure is the correct intervention to prevent hypotension. Preloading with IV fluids increases intravascular volume, counteracting the vasodilation and potential drop in blood pressure caused by the epidural anesthesia. .
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