A nurse has received a report about a patient in labor.
The patient's last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and -2. What is the nurse's interpretation of this assessment?
The cervix is dilated 3 cm, is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
The cervix is effaced 3 cm, is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
The cervix is effaced 3 cm, is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
The cervix is 3 cm dilated, is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
This choice is incorrect because it inaccurately defines the meaning of the clinical findings. Effacement is measured as a percentage, not in centimeters. The station, indicated by a positive or negative number, represents the fetal head's position relative to the ischial spines, not the cervix. A negative number indicates the head is positioned above the ischial spines.
Choice B rationale
This choice is incorrect because it reverses the definitions of dilation and effacement. Dilation is measured in centimeters (cm), while effacement is measured as a percentage. Additionally, a negative station number indicates that the presenting part is above the ischial spines, not below them.
Choice C rationale
This choice is incorrect because it reverses the definitions of dilation and effacement. Dilation is measured in centimeters, while effacement is measured as a percentage. The station, a negative number like -2, correctly indicates that the presenting part is above the ischial spines.
Choice D rationale
This choice is correct because it accurately interprets the three parameters of a vaginal examination. The first number, 3 cm, indicates cervical dilation. The second number, 30%, represents cervical effacement. The third number, -2, signifies that the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. This is a fundamental assessment in labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Rupture of the amniotic membranes is a natural part of labor progression and a common procedure for labor induction or augmentation. While it is an important event to note and monitor for potential complications like cord prolapse, it is not a direct contraindication for oxytocin administration unless other signs of fetal or maternal compromise are present.
Choice B rationale
A fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute with accelerations is considered a normal, reassuring finding. The normal fetal heart rate range is 110-160 beats per minute. Accelerations indicate a healthy fetal response to stimulation and adequate oxygenation. Therefore, this finding would support the continuation of oxytocin, not its discontinuation.
Choice C rationale
Uterine hyperstimulation, defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes, is a significant complication of oxytocin augmentation. This can lead to fetal distress due to reduced uteroplacental blood flow during contractions. The prolonged and frequent contractions can compromise oxygen delivery to the fetus, necessitating immediate discontinuation of the oxytocin infusion to prevent adverse outcomes.
Choice D rationale
A patient needing to void is a normal physiological need. While the nurse should ensure the patient voids regularly to prevent bladder distention, which can impede fetal descent, it is not an indication to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. This action can be managed without interrupting the medication administration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The cost of a medication is a logistical consideration, not a scientific or pharmacological basis for its clinical preference during labor. The selection of an analgesic is primarily determined by its therapeutic profile, including efficacy, safety for both mother and fetus, and its mechanism of action, rather than economic factors.
Choice B rationale
The administration route is a clinical characteristic, but it does not explain why these specific drugs are preferred. Butorphanol and nalbuphine are typically administered intravenously or intramuscularly, not orally, to achieve rapid onset and predictable plasma concentrations, which is crucial for managing acute labor pain.
Choice C rationale
These medications, like most opioids, are lipophilic and have low molecular weights, allowing them to readily cross the placental barrier via passive diffusion. This is a significant aspect of their pharmacology. The preference for these specific drugs lies in their partial agonist/antagonist activity, which mitigates some of the risks of fetal respiratory depression.
Choice D rationale
Butorphanol and nalbuphine are synthetic opioid agonist-antagonists. This unique pharmacological profile means they bind to and activate kappa opioid receptors while acting as antagonists or partial agonists at mu opioid receptors. This dual action provides effective pain relief while concurrently limiting the degree of respiratory depression compared to full mu-opioid agonists, making them a safer choice for both mother and fetus during labor. *.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
