A nurse has received morning report on the following four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who was administered acyclovir for cellulitis reports pain in the affected leg
A client who was administered adalimumab for Crohn’s disease, has a serum calcium level of 10 mg/dL, and reports a headache
A client who was administered erythromycin for acute glomerulonephritis and reports reddish brown urinary output
A client who was administered glipizide for type 2 diabetes mellitus and has a blood glucose of 68 mg/dl
The Correct Answer is D
A. Pain in the affected leg could indicate worsening of cellulitis or a potential complication like deep vein thrombosis (DVT), but there is no immediate indication of a life-threatening condition. This client should be assessed, but may not be the top priority unless other signs of complications are present.
B. A serum calcium level of 10 mg/dL is within the normal range (8.5 to 10.5 mg/dL). A headache, while concerning, is not immediately life-threatening unless there are additional symptoms suggesting something more severe.
C.Reddish brown urine suggests hematuria, a symptom of glomerulonephritis. This could indicate ongoing kidney issues, but unless there are signs of severe kidney failure or systemic infection, this might not be the most urgent case.
D. A blood glucose level of 68 mg/dL is low and can lead to hypoglycemia, which can be immediately life-threatening if it progresses to severe hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, dizziness, sweating, and can escalate to seizures or unconsciousness if not promptly treated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["100"]
Explanation
Clindamycin is an antibiotic that can treat infections caused by staphylococci bacteria. It can be given by intermittent IV bolus, which means injecting the drug into a vein over a short period of time. To calculate the infusion rate for clindamycin, we need to use the formula:
Infusion rate (ml/hr) = Volume (ml) / Time (hr)
In this case, the volume is 50 ml and the time is 0.5 hr (30 min). Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
Infusion rate (ml/hr) = 50 ml / 0.5 hr
Infusion rate (ml/hr) = 100 ml/hr
Therefore, the nurse should set the IV pump to deliver 100 ml/hr of clindamycin.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Assessing a client who experiences unilateral calf pain when ambulating.
Unilateral calf pain in a client who is ambulating can be indicative of a potential deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious condition that requires prompt assessment and intervention. DVTs are a risk after surgery, and early detection is crucial to prevent complications such as a pulmonary embolism. Assessing the client experiencing calf pain is the priority to determine the cause and initiate appropriate interventions.
B. Reassuring the partner of a client who sustained a closed head injury:
While providing support and reassurance to family members is important, it is not as urgent as assessing a client with potential signs of a DVT.
C. Taking a telephone prescription about a client who is to be transferred from PACU:
While obtaining and implementing orders in a timely manner is important, assessing and addressing a potential DVT takes precedence due to the immediate risk to the client's well-being.
D. Reinforcing a client’s dressing for the surgical site of an above-the-knee amputation:
Dressing reinforcement is important for wound care, but it is not as urgently needed as assessing a client with possible signs of a DVT. The assessment of calf pain takes priority.
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