A nurse in a clinic is discussing contraceptive methods with a client. Which of the following methods should the nurse recommend as having the lowest failure rate?

Intrauterine device

Diaphragm

Oral contraceptives

Contraceptive sponge

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A)   Correct- Intrauterine devices (IUDs) have one of the lowest failure rates among contraceptive methods. They are highly effective at preventing pregnancy.
B)   Incorrect- Diaphragms have a higher failure rate compared to IUDs.
C)   Incorrect- Oral contraceptives have a failure rate slightly higher than IUDs due to the potential for missed doses.
D)   Incorrect- Contraceptive sponges have a higher failure rate compared to IUDs.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Incorrect- Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax uterine muscles and inhibit contractions, not to treat an ectopic pregnancy.
B) Incorrect- Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, not to treat ectopic pregnancies.
C) Correct - Methotrexate is often used to treat unruptured ectopic pregnancies in the early stages by inhibiting the growth of trophoblastic tissue.
D) Incorrect- Calcium gluconate is used to treat magnesium toxicity and other conditions related to calcium imbalance, not to treat ectopic pregnancies.

A. Schedule the client for a routine 1-month appointment. B. Instruct the client to return for a 3-hr oral glucose tolerance test. C. Have the client perform home glucose monitoring for 1 week. D. Repeat the 1 hr glucose testing in 1 week.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Incorrect- Scheduling a routine 1-month appointment is not appropriate given the elevated glucose value. A 1-hour glucose screening test value of 130 mg/dL indicates an elevated glucose level, which suggests the need for further testing to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
B) Correct - An elevated glucose value on the initial screening test requires confirmation through a more comprehensive test, such as the 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test.
C) Incorrect- Home glucose monitoring might be indicated for gestational diabetes but is not the next step after an elevated 1-hour glucose screening test.
D) Incorrect- Repeating the 1-hour glucose test in 1 week is not necessary; if the initial test is elevated, further testing is required.

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A nurse in a clinic is discussing contraceptive methods with a client. Which of the following methods should the nurse recommend as having the lowest failure rate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is experiencing an unruptured ectopic pregnancy that is at 8 weeks of gestation. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the results of a 1-hr glucose screening test for a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation. The client's glucose value is 130 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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