A nurse in a gynecology office is caring for a client who reports vaginal itching and discharge in the last week.
The discharge is described as thick and “smelly.”. The client reports pain with urination and sexual intercourse.
The discharge became worse after their menstrual period this month.
The client has been treated for STIs in the past and is currently sexually active in a new relationship.
The provider has been notified, and a vaginal swab for culture and nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) has been performed.
Based on the information found in the client’s medical record, which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate receiving from the provider?
Instruct the client to avoid alcohol for 72 hr after treatment.
Administer metronidazole 2 g PO x 1 dose.
Perform an oatmeal sitz bath.
Have the client douche every morning and night.
Recommend the client’s partner receive treatment.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Instructing the client to avoid alcohol for 72 hr after treatment is a common instruction given when a client is prescribed certain medications, such as metronidazole, due to the potential for a disulfiram-like reaction. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s symptoms of vaginal itching and discharge.
Choice B rationale
The client’s symptoms are indicative of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV), a common vaginal infection in women of reproductive age. Metronidazole is a medication commonly used to treat this infection. A single dose of 2 g orally is a typical treatment regimen.
Choice C rationale
An oatmeal sitz bath can help soothe irritated skin and reduce inflammation, but it does not treat the underlying cause of the client’s symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Douching is generally not recommended as it can disrupt the normal balance of bacteria in the vagina and can lead to further complications.
Choice E rationale
Recommending the client’s partner receive treatment is important in cases of sexually transmitted infections to prevent reinfection. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s immediate need for treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The recommended time for rubella immunization for a woman who does not have immunity and is in the first trimester of pregnancy is shortly after giving birth. This is because the rubella vaccine is a live vaccine and is not recommended during pregnancy due to the potential risk to the fetus.
Choice B rationale
The rubella vaccine should not be given immediately during pregnancy due to the potential risk to the fetus.
Choice C rationale
While it’s ideal for a woman to be immune to rubella before she gets pregnant, if she finds out during pregnancy that she’s not immune, the vaccine should be given after delivery.
Choice D rationale
The rubella vaccine is not recommended during the third trimester of pregnancy due to the potential risk to the fetus.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
GTPAL calculation:
Step 1 is: Determine Gravida (G) = 4 pregnancies (1 elective abortion, 1 twin birth, 1 spontaneous abortion, 1 current pregnancy) = G4.
Step 2 is: Determine Term (T) births = 0 (no pregnancies reached 37 weeks).
Step 3 is: Determine Preterm (P) births = 1 (twin birth at 36 weeks) = P1.
Step 4 is: Determine Abortion (A) = 2 (1 elective abortion at 9 weeks, 1 spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks) = A2.
Step 5 is: Determine Living (L) children = 2 (twins) = L2.
The GTPAL status is: G4 T0 P1 A2 L2.
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