A nurse in a mental health facility caring for a client who expresses anxiety about exercising in the outdoor courtyard. The nurse promises to walk with the client in the courtyard each day. Which of the following ethical principles is the nurse demonstrating?
Autonomy
Fidelity
Justice
Nonmalefcence
The Correct Answer is B
A) Autonomy: Autonomy refers to the right of individuals to make their own choices and decisions. While the nurse’s actions may promote the client’s independence in the future, the nurse’s promise to walk with the client does not directly address or uphold the client’s autonomy. The nurse is offering support rather than encouraging the client to make independent decisions about their participation in the exercise.
B) Fidelity: Fidelity involves being faithful and keeping promises or commitments. In this scenario, the nurse promises to walk with the client in the courtyard each day, and this promise demonstrates the ethical principle of fidelity. The nurse is demonstrating trustworthiness and loyalty by committing to help the client overcome their anxiety and follow through with the daily exercise.
C) Justice: Justice is the ethical principle that focuses on fairness and equal treatment for all individuals. While justice is important in providing equal care to all clients, it is not the primary principle in this scenario. The nurse’s actions focus on meeting the specific needs of the individual client, which is more aligned with fidelity.
D) Nonmaleficence: Nonmaleficence means “do no harm.” While the nurse’s goal is to prevent harm by helping the client address their anxiety, the primary ethical principle at play here is fidelity, as the nurse is keeping their promise to provide consistent support. Nonmaleficence would be more relevant if the nurse were directly addressing potential harm or risk associated with the client’s situation, but the promise to walk with the client focuses more on the nurse’s commitment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Rubella titer nonimmune: A nonimmune rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella, which is a common finding in many pregnant women. However, rubella vaccination is not given during pregnancy because the vaccine is a live virus. The client will typically be vaccinated postpartum. Follow-up would be required, but it is not an urgent concern during the pregnancy itself.
B) Negative varicella titer: A negative varicella titer means the client is not immune to chickenpox, which is a concern because varicella can cause serious complications during pregnancy. However, similar to rubella, the varicella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy, and vaccination would be given postpartum. This requires follow-up after delivery but does not require urgent intervention during the pregnancy.
C) Positive Rh factor: The Rh factor is a blood type characteristic, but what is typically more concerning is the Rh incompatibility, which occurs when a Rh-negative mother carries a Rh-positive baby. A positive Rh factor is not a problem for the client themselves but could be important if the father is Rh-positive. If there is concern for Rh incompatibility, the nurse would monitor for the development of Rh sensitization and administer Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) if needed. This does not require urgent intervention unless Rh incompatibility is confirmed.
D) Positive serologic test for syphilis: A positive test for syphilis requires immediate follow-up intervention. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause serious complications during pregnancy, including miscarriage, stillbirth, preterm birth, and congenital syphilis. Treatment with penicillin is recommended to prevent transmission to the baby and to treat the infection in the mother. A positive serologic test for syphilis warrants prompt intervention.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A. Chronic health condition: The client has a history of Parkinson’s disease and anxiety, which are relevant but not immediate concerns. Chronic conditions require long-term management rather than urgent intervention.
B. Current level of consciousness: The client is restless and not following commands, which may indicate hypoxia, worsening infection, or sepsis. A change in mental status is a critical finding requiring immediate evaluation.
C. Oxygen saturation level: The oxygen saturation is 89% on room air, which is below the normal range (≥95%). This suggests respiratory compromise, likely due to pneumonia, requiring urgent oxygen support.
D. Heart rate: The client has a heart rate of 104/min, which is mildly elevated and expected due to fever and respiratory distress. However, it is not the most critical concern compared to respiratory distress and altered mental status.
E. Respiratory rate: The respiratory rate is 30/min, indicating tachypnea and increased work of breathing, suggesting respiratory distress or impending respiratory failure. This requires immediate intervention.
F. Tremors: Tremors are a common finding in Parkinson’s disease and do not require immediate intervention.
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