A nurse in a mental health facility is evaluating the effectiveness of mechanical restraints for a client who threw a chair in the day room. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication to remove the restraints?
The client follows the nurse's simple instructions.
The client apologizes for their aggressive behavior.
The client requests that the restraints be removed.
The client maintains eye contact while talking with the nurse.
The Correct Answer is A
- Rationale for A: Following simple instructions indicates that the client is cooperative and may no longer pose a threat to themselves or others, which is a primary consideration for the removal of restraints. It shows the client's ability to understand and comply with directions, suggesting they are in a calmer state of mind. This behavioral change is a positive sign of regained control, making it safe to consider restraint removal.
- Rationale for B: While an apology may show remorse, it does not necessarily indicate that the client has calmed down or that they can safely interact without the restraints. Apologies can be driven by various motivations and do not reliably demonstrate a change in the risk of aggression.
- Rationale for C: A request to have restraints removed is not sufficient evidence of reduced risk. The client's desire to be unrestrained does not equate to a behavioral change that would justify removal, as it does not assess the client's current mental state or potential for aggression.
- Rationale for D: Maintaining eye contact is a positive social behavior but does not directly correlate with the client's potential for aggression or their ability to be safely managed without restraints. It is not a definitive indicator of the client's readiness to have restraints removed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administering furosemide may also be appropriate for managing heart failure symptoms, but the priority action based on the client's condition is to withhold digoxin.
B. The client's vital signs indicate bradycardia (pulse 52/min), which is a common adverse effect of digoxin, especially in the setting of heart failure. Withholding digoxin is necessary to prevent further exacerbation of bradycardia and potential toxicity.
C. Withholding spironolactone may be considered if there are concerns about electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the priority action in this scenario.
D. Administering ferrous sulfate is not indicated based on the client's chart findings; there is no indication of anemia or iron deficiency.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.
A. Clear fluid drainage from the nares, especially if it is continuous or persistent, may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which can occur with a skull fracture.
B. Pain around the eyes is more commonly associated with a nasal fracture or orbital fracture, rather than a skull fracture.
C. Dried blood in the mouth may indicate nasal bleeding but does not necessarily indicate a skull fracture.
D. Mandibular asymmetry may indicate a jaw fracture or injury but is not typically associated with a skull fracture.
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